NEET 2017 Biology solution (With NCERT Reference)

NEET 2017 Biology solution

(With NCERT Reference)

1. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

  1. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
  2. Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
  3. Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
  4. Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 159]

2. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of:

(1) Atrial natriuretic factor

(2) Aldosterone

(3) ADH

(4) Renin
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 297]

3. Which cells of “Crypts of Lieberkuhn” secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

(1) Paneth cells

(2) Zymogen cells

(3) Kupffer cells

(4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)

4. Which of the following are not polymeric?

(1) Proteins

(2) Polysaccharides

(3) Lipids

(4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 146]

5. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into?

(1) Endosperm

(2) Embryo sac

(3) Embryo

(4) Ovule
Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 26]

6. Myelin sheath is produced by:

  1. Astrocytes and Schwann cells
  2. Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
  3. Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
  4. Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 317]

7. Attractants and rewards are required for :

(1) Entomophily

(2) Hydrophily

(3) Cleistogamy

(4) Anemophily
Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 30,237]

8. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on :

  1. Pre-synaptic membrane
  2. Tips of axons
  3. Post-synaptic membrane
  4. Membrane of synaptic vesicles

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 320]

9. Coconut fruit is a :

(1) Berry

(2) Nut

(3) Capsule

(4) Drupe
Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 76]

10. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

a. They do not need to reproduce

b. They are somatic cells

c. They do not metabolize

d. All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
(1) only (a)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) only (d)
Ans. (4)

11. Capacitation occurs in:

  1. Epididymis
  2. Vas deferens
  3. Female reproductive tract
  4. Rete testis

Ans. (3)

12. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ?

(1) Eubacteria

(2) Cyanobacteria

(3) Mycobacteria

(4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 19]

13. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

  1. K = N
  2. K > N
  3. K < N
  4. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 231]

14. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents :

  1. Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
  2. Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
  3. Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
  4. Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 136]

15. Select the mismatch :

  1. Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
  2. Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
  3. Rhizobium – Alfalfa
  4. Frankia – Alnus

Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 202]

16. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food :

Select the best option from the following statements :

  1. Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
  2. The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment
  3. Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
  4. Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments

Options :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 324]

17. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with :

(1) Acetocarmine

(2) Aniline blue

(3) Ethidium bromide

(4) Bromophenol blue
Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 198]

18. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from :

(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys (3) Intestine (4) Heart
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 286]

19. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem (3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 95]

20. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement :

  1. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
  2. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
  3. Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
  4. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 89]

21. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi

Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

  1. 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
  2. 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
  3. 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
  4. 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 77]

22. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture ?

  1. Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
  2. Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
  3. Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
  4. Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 187]

23. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :

(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem (3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 68]

24. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants ?

  1. Biodiversity hot spots
  2. Amazon rainforest
  3. Himalayan region
  4. Wildlife safari parks

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 267]

25. Root hairs develop from the region of :

(1) Elongation (2) root cap (3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 67]

26. A disease caused by an autosomal primary nondisjunction is :

(1) Klinefelter’s Syndrome

(2) Turner’s Syndrome

(3) Sickel Cell Anemia

(4) Down’s Syndrome
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 91]

27. The water potential of pure water is :

  1. Less than zero
  2. More than zero but less than one
  3. More than one
  4. Zero

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 179]

28. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis ?

1. Condensation ( nuclear membrane disassembly ( arrangement at equator ( centromere division ( segregation ( telophase
2.Condensation ( crossing over ( nuclear membrane disassembly ( segregation ( telophase
3. Condensation ( arrangement at equator ( centromere division ( segregation ( telophase

4. Condensation ( nuclear membrane disassembly ( crossing over ( segregation ( telophase
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 164-166]

29. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :

  1. Downstream processing
  2. Bioprocessing
  3. Postproduction processing
  4. Upstream processing

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 204]

30. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum (3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 332,337; 12th Pg 51]

31. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 86,87,96]

32. An example of colonial alga is :

(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix (3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 30,31]

33. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a)Gonorrhea. (i)HIV

(b) Syphilis. (ii)Neisseria

(c)Genital Warts (iii) Treponema

(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus

(a) (b) (c) (d)
iii iv i ii
iv ii iii i
iv iii ii i
ii iii iv i
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 63]

34. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is :

  1. They inhibit gametogenesis
  2. They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
  3. They inhibt ovulation
  4. The suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 60]

35. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids ?

(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 184]

36. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is :

  1. Ventral tubular nerve cord
  2. Pharynx with gill slits
  3. Pharynx without gill slits
  4. Absence of notochord

Ans. (2) Gills are given but gill slits are not [NCERT 11th Page 54]

37. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of :

  1. Hershey and Chase
  2. Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
  3. Hargobind Khorana
  4. Griffith

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 101]

38. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea ?

  1. Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
  2. Seed – Green or Yellow
  3. Pod – Inflated or Constricted
  4. Stem – Tall or Dwarf

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 71]

39. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to :

(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes (3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Ans. (1) viviparous germination is not given [NCERT 11th Page 67]

40. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of :

(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint (3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 312]

41. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct ?

  1. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
  2. C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum
  3. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield
  4. Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

Ans. (2) All four statements are clearly mentioned. [NCERT 11th Page 223, 224]

42. DNA fragments are:

  1. Negatively charged
  2. Neutral
  3. Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
  4. Positively charged

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 198]

43. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell ?

  1. Nuclear membrane
  2. Plasma membrane
  3. Glycocalyx
  4. Cell wall

Ans. (3) Exactly sticky character is not given but its very obvious [NCERT 11th Page 128]

44. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?

  1. amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
  2. peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
  3. Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
  4. amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 262]

45. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals ?

  1. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
  2. Whales, Dolphins, Seals
  3. Trygon, Whales, Seals
  4. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

Ans. (2) Seals is not given [NCERT 11th Page 56,57,60]

46. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:

(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins (3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 248]

47. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

  1. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –>Kidney –>Seminal Vesicle –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca
  2. Testes –>Vasa efferentia –> Bidder’s canal —> Ureter –> Cloaca
  3. Testes –>Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –>Bidder’s canal –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca
  4. Testes –> Bidder’s canal –> Kidney –> Vasa efferentia –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 119]

48. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

  1. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
  2. Artificial Insemination
  3. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
  4. Intrauterine transfer

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 64]

49. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

  1. Grassland ecosystem
  2. Pond ecosystem
  3. Lake ecosystem
  4. Forest ecosystem

Ans. (4)

50. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

  1. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
  2. Tidal Volume
  3. Expiratory Reserve Volume
  4. Residual Volume

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 272]

51. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in:

(1) Tropical Rain Forest (2) Grassland
(3) Temperate Forest (4) Tropical Savannah
Ans. (1) not given in exact wordings in NCERT.

52. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
  2. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
  3. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
  4. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 294 ]

53. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:

  1. Laws of limiting factor
  2. Species area relationships
  3. Population Growth equation
  4. Ecological Biodiversity

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 262]

54. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of;

(1) Fucus (2) Funaria (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 42]

55. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

(1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
Ans. (2) Based on Frameshift mutation [NCERT 12th Page 114]

56. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

(1) Bee (2) Wind (3) Bat (4) Water
Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 29]

57. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

(1) Cell – mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response
Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 152]

58. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:

  1. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
  2. Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
  3. Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
  4. Haplontic, Diplontic

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 43]

59. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :

(1) Vector (2) Plasmid (3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 199]

60. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both :

(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(4) Autogamy and xenogamy
Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 31]

61. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle ?

  1. There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2
  2. During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
  3. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
  4. There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+ H+

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 231]

62. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

  1. C4 plants
  2. C2 plants
  3. C3 and C4 plants
  4. C3 plants

Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 219]

63. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:

  1. The lagging strand towards replication fork.
  2. The leading strand away from replication fork.
  3. The lagging strand away from the replication fork.
  4. The leading strand towards replication fork.

Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 107, Fig 6.8]

64. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell ?

(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA
Ans. (4)

65. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on:

  1. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
  2. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
  3. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
  4. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 47]

66. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

  1. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
  2. Positively charged fragments move to farther end
  3. Negatively charged fragments do not move
  4. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 198]

67. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because:

  1. Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
  2. Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults.
  3. Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.
  4. Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults.

Ans. (1)

68. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

  1. Within nucleolus
  2. Prior to fission
  3. Just before transcription
  4. During S phase

Ans. (2)

69. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments ?

  1. 1840 – 1850
  2. 1857 – 1869
  3. 1870 – 1877
  4. 1856 – 1863

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 70]

70. Viroids differ from viruses in having;

  1. DNA molecules without protein coat
  2. RNA molecules with protein coat
  3. RNA molecules without protein coat
  4. DNA molecules with protein coat

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 27]

71. MALT constitutes about percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

(1) 20% (2) 70% (3) 10% (4) 50%
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 154]

72. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?

  1. Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
  2. Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
  3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
  4. Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics

Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 182]

73. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen ?

(1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma (3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 20]

74. Which of the following represents order of Horse?

(1) Perissodactyla (2) Caballus (3) Ferus (4) Equidae
Ans. (1)

75. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.

Select the best option from the following statements.

  1. Frog is a poikilotherm.
  2. Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
  3. Heart is “myogenic” in nature.
  4. Heart is auto excitable

Options:
(1) Only(d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c)and(d) (4) Only(c)
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 287]

76. Homozygous pure lines in cattle can be obtained by:

  1. mating of unrelated individuals of same breed.
  2. mating of individuals of different breed.
  3. mating of individuals of different species.
  4. mating of related individuals of same breed.

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 167]

77. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood:

  1. It is highly durable
  2. It conducts water and minerals efficiently
  3. It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls
  4. Organic compounds are deposited in it

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 96]

78. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?

  1. Chromosomes will be fragmented
  2. Chromosomes will not segregate
  3. Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
  4. Chromosomes will not condense

Ans. (2)

79. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?

(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 135]

80. Mycorrhizae are the example of:

(1) Amensalism (2) Antibiosis (3) Mutualism (4) Fungistasis
Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 237]

81. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only Y pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation:

  1. X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends.
  2. X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
  3. X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
  4. X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 310]

82. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:

  1. oscula
  2. choanocytes
  3. mesenchymal cells
  4. ostia

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 49]

83. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?

  1. They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
  2. They cause increased agricultural productivity
  3. They have negative impact on agricultural land
  4. They are harmful to human health

Ans. (2)

84. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check – up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?

  1. Canines
  2. Pre-molars
  3. Molars
  4. Incisors

Ans. (2)

85. Select the mismatch

  1. Cycas – Dioecious
  2. Salvinia – Heterosporous
  3. Equisetum – Homosporous
  4. Pinus – Dioecious

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 39]

86. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:

  1. Cotyledon
  2. Endosperm
  3. Pericarp
  4. Perisperm

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 35]

87. Double fertilization is exhibited by :

  1. Algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Gymnosperms

Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 34]

88. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of;

(1) Fungi (2) Animals (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 111]

89. The association of histone HI with a nucleosome indicates:

  1. DNA replication is occurring.
  2. The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.
  3. The DNA double helix is exposed.
  4. Transcription is occurring.

Ans. (2)

90. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as:

  1. Buffer zone
  2. Transition zone
  3. Restoration zone
  4. Core zone

Ans. (4)

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Neet 2017 biology solution

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CHAPTER 2 : SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

CHAPTER 2

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

[you can download the notes from the link given at the end of theory]

  • All flowering plants show sexual reproduction.

Flower – A Fascinating Organ of Angiosperms

  • Flowers are objects of aesthetic, ornamental, social, religious and cultural value – they have always been used as symbols for conveying important human feelings such as love, affection, happiness, grief, mourning, etc.

1

  • Pre-fertilisation: Structures and Events

  • Several hormonal and structural changes are initiated which lead to the differentiation and further development of the floral primordium.
  • Inflorescences are formed which bear the floral buds and then the flowers.
  • In the flower the male and female reproductive structures, the androecium and the gynoecium differentiate and develop.
  • The androecium consists of a whorl of stamens representing the male reproductive organ and the gynoecium represents the female reproductive organ.

Stamen, Microsporangium and Pollen Grain

  • A typical stamen has two parts –

the long and slender stalk called the filament,

and the terminal generally bilobed structure called the anther.

  • The proximal end of the filament is attached to the thalamus or the petal of the flower.
  • The number and length of stamens are variable in flowers of different species.
  • A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed with each lobe having two theca, i.e., they are
  • The anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe. tetrasporangiate
  • The microsporangia develop further and become pollen sacs. They extend longitudinally all through the length of an anther and are packed with pollen grains.

1

1.jpg

Structure of microsporangium:

  • In a transverse of an anther section, a typical microsporangium appears nearcircular in outline.
  • It is generally surrounded by four wall layers :- the epidermis, endothecium, middle layers and the tapetum.
  • The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.
  • The innermost wall layer is the It nourishes the developing pollen grains. Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.
  • When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.

Microsporogenesis :

  • As the anther develops, the cells of the sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic divisions to form microspore tetrads, which is haploid.
  • As each cell of the sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a microspore tetrad. Each one is a potential pollen or microspore mother cell (PMC).
  • The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
  • The microspores, as they are formed, are arranged in a cluster of four cells-the microspore tetrad.
  • As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into pollen grains.
  • Inside each microsporangium several thousands of microspores or pollen grains are formed that are released with the dehiscence of anther.

 

Pollen grain:

  • The pollen grains represent the male gametophytes.
  • Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about 25-50 micrometers in diameter.
  • It has a prominent two-layered wall.
    • The hard outer layer called the exine is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant organic material known. It can withstand high temperatures and strong acids and alkali. No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is so far known. Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called germ pores where sporopollenin is absent. Pollen grains are well- preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin. The exine exhibits a fascinating array of patterns and designs.
    • The inner wall of the pollen grain is called the It is a thin and continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin.
  • The cytoplasm of pollen grain is surrounded by a plasma membrane.
  • When the pollen grain is mature it contains two cells, the vegetative cell and generative cell.
    • The vegetative cell is bigger, has abundant food reserve and a large irregularly shaped nucleus.
    • The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell. It is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.
  • In over 60 per cent of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at this 2-celled stage. In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically to give rise to the two male gametes before pollen grains are shed (3-celled stage).

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  • Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies and bronchial afflictions in some people often leading to chronic respiratory disorders – asthma, bronchitis, etc.
  • It may be mentioned that Parthenium or carrot grass that came into India as a contaminant with imported wheat, has become ubiquitous in occurrence and causes pollen allergy.
  • Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. It has become a fashion in recent years to use pollen tablets as food supplements.
  • In western countries, a large number of pollen products in the form of tablets and syrups are available in the market.
  • Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of athletes and race horses.
  • When once they are shed, pollen grains have to land on the stigma before they lose viability if they have to bring about fertilisation.
  • The period for which pollen grains remain viable is highly variable and to some extent depends on the prevailing temperature and humidity.
  • In some cereals such as rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within 30 minutes of their release, and in some members of Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae, they maintain viability for months.
  • It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in liquid nitrogen (-1960C). Such stored pollen can be used as pollen banks, similar to seed banks, in crop breeding programmes.

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The Pistil, Megasporangium (ovule) and Embryo sac (Female gametophyte):

  • The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower.
  • It may consist of a single pistil (monocarpellary) or may have more than one pistil (multicarpellary). When there are more than one, the pistils may be fused together (syncarpous) or may be free (apocarpous).
  • Each pistil has three parts – the stigma, style and ovary.

The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains.

The style is the elongated slender part beneath the stigma.

The basal bulged part of the pistil is the ovary. Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity (locule). The placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.

  • Arising from the placenta are the megasporangia, commonly calledovules.
  • The number of ovules in an ovary may be one (wheat, paddy, mango) to many (papaya, water melon, orchids).

The Megasporangium (Ovule):

  • The ovule is a small structure attached to the placenta by means of a stalk calledfunicle.
  • The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the region calledhilum. Thus, hilum represents the junction between ovule and funicle.
  • Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes calledinteguments. Integuments encircle the ovule except at the tip where a small opening called themicropyle is organised.
  • Opposite the micropylar end, is thechalaza, representing the basal part of the ovule.
  • Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called thenucellus. Cells of the nucellus have abundant reserve food materials.
  • Located in the nucellus is theembryo sac or female gametophyte.
  • An ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a megaspore through reduction division.

Megasporogenesis:

  • The process of formation of megaspores from the megaspore mother cell is called
  • Ovules generally differentiate a single megaspore mother cell (MMC) in the micropylar region of the nucellus. It is a large cell containing dense cytoplasm and a prominent nucleus.
  • The MMC undergoes meiotic division.Meiosis results in the production of four megaspores.

Female gametophyte:

  • In a majority of flowering plants, one of the megaspores is functional while the other three degenerate.
  • Only the functional megaspore develops into the female gametophyte (embryo sac). This method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed monosporic
  • Ploidy of the cells of the

nucellus – 2n,

MMC – 2n,

the functional megaspore – n,

female gametophyte – n.

  • Process of development –

    The nucleus of the functional megaspore divides mitotically to form two nuclei which move to the opposite poles, forming the 2-nucleate embryo sac. Two more sequential mitotic nuclear divisions result in the formation of the 4-nucleate and later the 8-nucleate stages of the embryo sac.

these mitotic divisions are strictly free nuclear. (nuclear divisions are not followed immediately by cell wall formation.)

After the 8-nucleate stage, cell walls are laid down leading to the organisation of the typical female gametophyte or embryo sac.

  • Structure –

Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and organised into cells; the remaining two nuclei, called polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large central cell.

Three cells are grouped together at the micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus. The egg apparatus, in turn, consists of two synergids and one egg cell.

The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus, which play an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid.

Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called the antipodals.

The large central cell, as mentioned earlier, has two polar nuclei.

Thus, a typical angiosperm embryo sac, at maturity, though 8-nucleate is 7-celled.

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Pollination

  • both male and female gametes are non-motile, so they have to be brought together for fertilisation to occur.
  • The transfer of pollen grains (shed from the anther) to the stigma of a pistil is termedpollination.
  • Kinds of Pollination : Depending on the source of pollen, pollination can be divided into three types.
    • Autogamy : Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower. In a normal flower which opens and exposes the anthers and the stigma, complete autogamy is rather rare. Autogamy in such flowers requires synchrony in pollen release and stigma receptivity and also, the anthers and the stigma should lie close to each other so that self-pollination can occur.

Some plants such as Viola (common pansy), Oxalis, and Commelina produce two types of flowers –

chasmogamous flowers which are similar to flowers of other species with exposed anthers and stigma, and

cleistogamous flowers which do not open at all. In such flowers, the anthers and stigma lie close to each other. When anthers dehisce in the flower buds, pollen grains come in contact with the stigma to effect pollination. Thus, cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of cross-pollen landing on the stigma. Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.

  • Geitonogamy – Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant. Although geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination involving a pollinating agent, genetically it is similar to autogamy since the pollen grains come from the same plant.
  • Xenogamy – Transfer of pollen grains from anther to the stigma of a different plant. This is the only type of pollination which during pollination brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma.

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 Agents of Pollination:

  • Plants use two abiotic (wind and water) and one biotic (animals) agents to achieve pollination.
  • Majority of plants use biotic agents for pollination. Only a small proportion of plants use abiotic agents.
  • Pollen grains coming in contact with the stigma is a chance factor in both wind and water pollination. To compensate for this uncertainties and associated loss of pollen grains, the flowers produce enormous amount of pollen when compared to the number of ovules available for pollination.
  • Wind poliination –
    • Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollinations.
    • Wind pollination requires that the pollen grains are light and non-sticky so that they can be transported in wind currents.
    • These plants often possess well-exposed stamens (so that the pollens are easily dispersed into wind currents) and large often-feathery stigma to easily trap air-borne pollen grains.
    • Wind- pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence.
    • g., corn cob, grasses.
  • Water pollination –
    • Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants, present in mostly monocotyledons.
    • water is a regular mode of transport for the male gametes among the lower plant groups such as algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes.
    • g., Vallisneria and Hydrilla (fresh water) and Zostera (marine sea-grasses).
    • Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination.
    • In a majority of aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and water lily, the flowers emerge above the level of water and are pollinated by insects or wind as in most of the land plants.
    • In Vallisneria, the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water. They are carried passively by water currents; some of them eventually reach the female flowers and the stigma.
    • In seagrasses, female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains are released inside the water. Pollen grains in many such species are long, ribbon like and they are carried passively inside the water; some of them reach the stigma and achieve pollination.
    • In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by a mucilaginous covering.
    • Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar.
  • Animal pollination –
    • Mode of pollination in majority of flowering plants.
    • Bees, butterflies, flies, beetles, wasps, ants, moths, birds (sunbirds and humming birds) and bats are the common pollinating agents.
    • Among the animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents.
    • Even larger animals such as some primates (lemurs), arboreal (tree-dwelling) rodents, or even reptiles (gecko lizard and garden lizard) are also pollinators in some species.
    • Often flowers of animal- pollinated plants are specifically adapted for a particular species of animal.
    • Majority of insect-pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
    • When the flowers are small, a number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make them conspicuous.
    • Animals are attracted to flowers by colour and/or fragrance.
    • The flowers pollinated by flies and beetles secrete foul odours to attract these animals.
    • To sustain animal visits, the flowers have to provide rewards to the animals. Nectar and pollen grains are the usual floral rewards.
    • For harvesting the reward(s) from the flower the animal visitor comes in contact with the anthers and the stigma. The body of the animal gets a coating of pollen grains, which are generally sticky in animal pollinated flowers. When the animal carrying pollen on its body comes in contact with the stigma, it brings about pollination.
    • In some species floral rewards are in providing safe places to lay eggs; e.g., tallest flower of Amorphophallus (6 feet in height).
    • A similar relationship exists between a species of moth and the plant Yucca where both species – moth and the plant – cannot complete their life cycles without each other. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary and the flower, in turn, gets pollinated by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
    • Other examples of insect pollinated plants – Cucumber, Mango, PeepaL, Coriander, Papaya, Onion, Lobia, Cotton, Tobacco, Rose, Lemon, Eucalyptus, Banana.
    • Pollen/ Nectar robbers – Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar without bringing about pollination. Such floral visitors are referred to as pollen/nectar robbers.

Outbreeding Devices:

  • Majority of flowering plants produce hermaphrodite flowers and pollen grains are likely to come in contact with the stigma of the same flower.
  • Continued self-pollination result in inbreeding depression.
  • Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self- pollination and to encourage cross-pollination.
  • In some species, pollen release and stigma receptivity are not synchronised. Either the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive or stigma becomes receptive much before the release of pollen.
  • In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of the same flower. Both these devices prevent autogamy.
  • self-incompatibility – This is a genetic mechanism and prevents self-pollen (from the same flower or other flowers of the same plant) from fertilising the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
  • production of unisexual flowers.

If both male and female flowers are present on the same plant such as castor and maize (monoecious), it prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy.

In several species such as papaya, male and female flowers are present on different plants, that is each plant is either male or female (dioecy). This condition prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy.

Pollen-pistil Interaction:

  • Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of pollen (compatible pollen of the same species as the stigma). Often, pollen of the wrong type, either from other species or from the same plant (if it is self-incompatible), also land on the stigma.
  • The pistil has the ability to recognise the pollen, whether it is of the right type (compatible) or of the wrong type (incompatible). If it is of the right type, the pistil accepts the pollen and promotes post-pollination events that leads to fertilisation. If the pollen is of the wrong type, the pistil rejects the pollen by preventing pollen germination on the stigma or the pollen tube growth in the style.
  • The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by its acceptance or rejection is the result of a continuous dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil. This dialogue is mediated by chemical components of the pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
  • As mentioned earlier, following compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores. The contents of the pollen grain move into the pollen tube. Pollen tube grows through the tissues of the stigma and style and reaches the ovary.
  • In some plants, pollen grains are shed at two-celled condition (a vegetative cell and a generate cell). In such plants, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma. In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen tubes carry the two male gametes from the beginning.
  • Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary, enters the ovule through the micropyle and then enters one of the synergids through the filiform apparatus. Filiform apparatus present at the micropylar part of the synergids guides the entry of pollen tube.
  • All these events-from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule-are together referred to as pollen-pistil interaction.
  • pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by promotion or inhibition of the pollen.

Artificial hybridisation

  • it is one of the major approaches of crop improvement programme. In such crossing experiments it is important to make sure that only the desired pollen grains are used for pollination and the stigma is protected from contamination (from unwanted pollen). This is achieved by emasculation and bagging techniques.
  • If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud before the anther dehisces using a pair of forceps is necessary. This step is referred to as
  • Emasculated flowers have to be covered with a bag of suitable size, generally made up of butter paper, to prevent contamination of its stigma with unwanted pollen. This process is called
  • When the stigma of bagged flower attains receptivity, mature pollen grains collected from anthers of the male parent are dusted on the stigma, and the flowers are rebagged, and the fruits allowed to develop.
  • If the female parent produces unisexual flowers, there is no need for emasculation. The female flower buds are bagged before the flowers open. When the stigma becomes receptive, pollination is carried out using the desired pollen and the flower rebagged.

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Double Fertilisation

  • After entering one of the synergids, the pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of the synergid.
  • One of the male gametes moves towards the egg cell and fuses with its nucleus thus completing the This results in the formation of a diploid cell, the zygote.
  • The other male gamete moves towards the two polar nuclei located in the central cell and fuses with them to produce a triploid primary endosperm nucleus (PEN). As this involves the fusion of three haploid nuclei it is termed triple fusion.
  • Since two types of fusions, syngamy and triple fusion take place in an embryo sac the phenomenon is termed double fertilisation, an event unique to flowering plants.
  • The central cell after triple fusion becomes the primary endosperm cell (PEC) and develops into the endosperm while the zygote develops into an

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  • Post-Fertilisation : Structures And Events
  • Following double fertilisation, events of endosperm and embryo development, maturation of ovule(s) into seed(s) and ovary into fruit, are collectively termed post-fertilisation events.

Endosperm

  • Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
  • The primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue. The cells of this tissue are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo.
  • In the most common type of endosperm development, the PEN undergoes successive nuclear divisions to give rise to free nuclei. This stage of endosperm development is called free-nuclear endosperm.
  • Subsequently cell wall formation occurs and the endosperm becomes cellular. The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation varies greatly.
  • The coconut water from tender coconut that you are familiar with, is nothing but free-nuclear endosperm (made up of thousands of nuclei) and the surrounding white kernel is the cellular endosperm.
  • Endosperm may either be completely consumed by the developing embryo (e.g., pea, groundnut, beans) before seed maturation or it may persist in the mature seed (e.g. castor and coconut) and be used up during seed germination.

Embryo

  • Embryo develops at the micropylar end of the embryo sac where the zygote is situated.
  • Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed. This is an adaptation to provide assured nutrition to the developing embryo.
  • Though the seeds differ greatly, the early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are similar in both monocotyledons and dicotyledons.
  • The zygote gives rise to the proembryo and subsequently to the globular, heart-shaped and mature embryo.
  • A typical dicotyledonous embryo, consists of an embryonal axis and two
  • The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the epicotyl, which terminates with the plumule or stem tip.
  • The cylindrical portion below the level of cotyledons is hypocotyl that terminates at its lower end in the radical or root tip. The root tip is covered with a root cap.
  • Embryos of monocotyledons possess only one cotyledon. In the grass family the cotyledon is called scutellum that is situated towards one side (lateral) of the embryonal axis.
  • At its lower end, the embryonal axis has the radical and root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath called
  • The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum is the epicotyl. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure, the

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Seed

  • In angiosperms, the seed is the final product of sexual reproduction. It is often described as a fertilised ovule. Seeds are formed inside fruits.
  • A seed typically consists of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) and an embryo axis.
  • The cotyledons of the embryo are simple structures, generally thick and swollen due to storage of food reserves (as in legumes).
  • Mature seeds may be non-albuminous or
  • Non-albuminous seeds have no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during embryo development (e.g., pea, groundnut). Albuminous seeds retain a part of endosperm as it is not completely used up during embryo development (e.g., wheat, maize, barley, castor, sunflower).
  • Occasionally, in some seeds such as black pepper and beet, remnants of nucellus are also persistent. This residual, persistent nucellus is the
  • Integuments of ovules harden as tough protective seed
  • The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat. This facilitates entry of oxygen and water into the seed during germination.
  • As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry (10-15 per cent moisture by mass).
  • The general metabolic activity of the embryo slows down.
  • The embryo may enter a state of inactivity called dormancy, or if favourable conditions are available (adequate moisture, oxygen and suitable temperature), they germinate.
  • As ovules mature into seeds, the ovary develops into a fruit, i.e., the transformation of ovules into seeds and ovary into fruit proceeds simultaneously.
  • The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called
  • The fruits may be fleshy as in guava, orange, mango, etc., or may be dry, as in groundnut, and mustard, etc.
  • Many fruits have evolved mechanisms for dispersal of seeds.
  • In most plants, by the time the fruit develops from the ovary, other floral parts degenerate and fall off.
  • However, in a few species such as apple, strawberry, cashew, etc., the thalamus also contributes to fruit formation. Such fruits are called false fruits. Most fruits however develop only from the ovary and are called true fruits.
  • Although in most of the species, fruits are the results of fertilisation, there are a few species in which fruits develop without fertilisation. Such fruits are called parthenocarpic fruits.g., Banana. Parthenocarpy can be induced through the application of growth hormones and such fruits are seedless.

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Advantages offered by seeds –

  • since reproductive processes such as pollination and fertilisation are independent of water, seed formation is more dependable.
  • Seeds have better adaptive strategies for dispersal to new habitats and help the species to colonise in other areas.
  • As Seeds have sufficient food reserves, young seedlings are nourished until they are capable of photosynthesis on their own.
  • The hard seed coat provides protection to the young embryo.
  • Being products of sexual reproduction, they generate new genetic combinations leading to variations.
  • Seed is the basis of our agriculture.
  • Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds are crucial for storage of seeds which can be used as food throughout the year and also to raise crop in the next season.
  • Oldest recorded viable seeds – a lupine, Lupinus arcticus excavated from Arctic Tundra. (10,000 years), and date palm, Phoenix dactylfera (2000 years)excavated from King Herod’s palace near the Dead Sea.
  • In Orchid each fruit contain thousands of tiny seeds. Similar is the case in fruits of some parasitic species such as Orobanche and Striga.

Apomixis and Polyembryony

  • Although seeds, in general are the products of fertilisation, a few flowering plants such as some species of Asteraceae and grasses, have evolved a special mechanism, to produce seeds without fertilisation, called
  • apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
  • There are several ways of development of apomictic seeds.
  • In some species, the diploid egg cell is formed without reduction division and develops into the embryo without fertilisation.
  • in many Citrus and Mangovarieties some of the nucellar cells surrounding the embryo sac start dividing, protrude into the embryo sac and develop into the embryos. In such species each ovule contains many embryos. Occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is referred as
  • Hybrid varieties of several of our food and vegetable crops are being extensively cultivated. Cultivation of hybrids has tremendously increased productivity.
  • One of the problems of hybrids is that hybrid seeds have to be produced every year. If the seeds collected from hybrids are sown, the plants in the progeny will segregate and do not maintain hybrid characters. Production of hybrid seeds is costly and hence the cost of hybrid seeds become too expensive for the farmers.
  • If these hybrids are made into apomicts, there is no segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny. Then the farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds to raise new crop year after year and he does not have to buy hybrid seeds every year. Because of the importance of apomixis in hybrid seed industry, active research is going on in many laboratories around the world to understand the genetics of apomixis and to transfer apomictic genes into hybrid varieties.

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CHAPTER 2 : SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS

 

NEET Phase-II (24-07-2016) Biology Solution {Code – XX}

NEET Phase-II Biology solution

Code – XX

Date – 24-07-2016

 

  1. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the samerestriction endonuclease can be joined toform a recombinant plasmid using
    1. ligase
    2. Eco RI
    3. Taq polymerase
    4. polymerase III

Ans.        (1) Ligase                                                                              [NCERT class 12, page 197]      

 

  1. Which of the following is not a component ofdownstream processing?
    1. Expression
    2. Separation
    3. Purification
    4. Preservation

Ans.        (1) Expression                                                  [NCERT class 12, page 205]

 

  1. Which of the following restriction enzymesproduces blunt ends?
    1. Hind III
    2. Sal I
    3. Eco RV
    4. Xho I

Ans.        (3) Eco RV

 

  1. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to afour-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase(ADA) deficiency?
    1. Radiation therapy
    2. Gene therapy
    3. Chemotherapy
    4. Immunotherapy

Ans.        (2) Gene therapy                                                                      [NCERT class 12, page 211]

 

  1. How many hot spots of biodiversity in theworld have been identified till date byNorman Myers?
    1. 43
    2. 17
    3. 25
    4. 34

Ans.        (4) 34                                                                            [NCERT class 12, page 266]

 

  1. The primary producers of the deep-seahydrothermal vent ecosystem are
    1. coral reefs
    2. green algae
    3. chemosynthetic bacteria
    4. blue-green algae

Ans.        (3) chemosynthetic bacteria                                             [NCERT class 12, page 226]

  

  1. Which of the following is correct forr-selected species?
    1. Small number of progeny with large size
    2. Large number of progeny with small size
    3. Large number of progeny with large size
    4. Small number of progeny with small size

Ans.        (2) Large number of progeny with small size

 

  1. If’+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutralinteraction, then the population interactionrepresented by ‘+’ refers to
    1. parasitism
    2. mutualism
    3. amensalism
    4. commensalism

Ans.        (1) parasitism                                                [NCERT class 12, page 232]

 

  1. Which of the following is correctly matched?
    1. Stratification—Population
    2. Aerenchyma—Opuntia
    3. Age pyramid—Biome
    4. Parthenium hysterophorus—Threat to biodiversity

Ans.        (4) Parthenium hysterophorus—Threat to biodiversity                                        [NCERT class 12, page 265]

 

  1. Red List contains data or information on
    1. marine vertebrates only
    2. all economically important plant
    3. plants whose products are ininternational trade
    4. threatened species

Ans.        (4) threatened species                                                           [NCERT class 12, page 263]

 

  1. Which one of the following is wrongfor fungi?
    1. They are both unicellular and
    2. They are eukaryotic.
    3. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.
    4. They are heterotrophic

Ans.        (3) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall                                                        [NCERT class 11, page 22]

 

  1. Methanogens belong to
    1. Slime moulds
    2. Eubacteria
    3. Archaebacteria
    4. Dinoflagellates

Ans.        (3) Archaebacteria                                                             [NCERT class 11, page 19]

 

  1. Select thewrong
    1. Diatoms are microscopic and floatpassively in water.
    2. The walls of diatoms are easily
    3. ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by thecell walls of diatoms.
    4. Diatoms are chief producers in the

Ans.        (2) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.            [NCERT class 11, page 20]

 

 

  1. The label of a herbarium sheetdoes not carry information on
    1. height of the plant
    2. date of collections
    3. name of collector
    4. local names

Ans.        (1) height of the plant                                                           [NCERT class 11, page 12]

 

  1. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extremeenvironmental conditions because of
    1. presence of vessels
    2. broad hardy leaves
    3. superficial stomata
    4. thick cuticle

Ans.        (4) thick cuticle                                                              [NCERT class 11, page 38]

 

  1. which one of the following statements iswrong?
    1. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as
    2. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.
    3. Algin is obtained from red algae, andcarrageenan from brown algae.
    4. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and

Ans.        (3) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae   [NCERT class 11, page 32]

 

  1. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
    1. calyx
    2. gynoecium
    3. androecium
    4. corolla

Ans.        (3) androecium                                                                   [NCERT class 11, page 75]

 

  1. How many plants among, indigophera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, Mustard, Groundnut, Radish, Gram, and Turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?
    1. six
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five

Ans.        (3) Four (Salvia, Mustard, Radish, Turnip)              [NCERT class 11, page 75]

 

  1. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
    1. Cassia
    2. Brassica
    3. Trifolium
    4. Pisum

Ans.        (2) Brassica                                                              [NCERT class 11, page 72,79]

 

  1. Free-central placentation is found in
    1. Citrus
    2. Dianthus
    3. Argemone
    4. Brassica

Ans.        (2) Dianthus                                                                      [NCERT class 11, page 75]

 

 

  1. Cortex is the region found between
    1. endodermis and vascular bundle
    2. epidermis and stele
    3. pericycle and endodermis
    4. endodermis and pith

Ans.        (2) epidermis and stele                                              [NCERT class 11, page 91]

 

  1. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
    1. are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels
    2. originate in the lumen of vessels
    3. Characterize the sapwood
    4. are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels

Ans.        (4) are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels

 

  1. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
    1. deoxyribonuclease
    2. lysozyme
    3. ribozyme
    4. ligase

Ans.        (3) ribozyme                                                                    [NCERT class 11, page 154]

 

  1. Select the
    1. Methanogens—Prokaryote
    2. Gas vacuoles—Green bacteria
    3. Large central vacuoles—Animal cells
    4. Protists—Eukaryotes

Ans.        (3) Large central vacuoles—Animal cells            [NCERT class 11, page 129]

 

  1. Select the wrong
    1. Mycoplasma is a wall-less
    2. Bacterial cell wall is made up of
    3. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved inmotility of bacterial cells.
    4. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

Ans.        (3) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells           [NCERT class 11, page 129]

 

  1. A cell organelle containing hydrolyticenzymes is
    1. mesosome
    2. lysosome
    3. microsome
    4. ribosome

Ans.        (2) lysosomes                                                                  [NCERT class 11, page 134]

 

  1. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takesplace in
    1. M phase
    2. S phase
    3. G1 phase
    4. G2 phase

Ans.        (2) S phase                                                                        [NCERT class 11, page 163]

 

 

  1. Which of the following biomolecules iscommon to respiration-mediated breakdownof fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
    1. Acetyl CoA
    2. Glucose-6-phosphate
    3. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
    4. Pyruvic acid

Ans.        (1) Acetyl CoA                                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 236]

 

  1. A few drops of sap were collected by cuttingacross a plant stem by a suitable method.The sap was tested chemically. Which one ofthe following test results indicates that it isphloem sap?
    1. Absence of sugar
    2. Acidic
    3. Alkaline
    4. Low refractive index

Ans.        (3) Alkaline

 

  1. You are given a tissue with its potential fordifferentiation in an artificial culture. Whichof the following pairs of hormones would youadd to the medium to secure shoots as wellas roots?
    1. Gibberellin and abscisic acid
    2. IAA and gibberellins
    3. Auxin and cytokinin
    4. Auxin and abscisic acid

Ans.        (3) Auxin and cytokinin                                              [NCERT class 12, page 177]

 

  1. Phytochrome is a
    1. Chromoprotein
    2. Flavoprotein
    3. Glycoprotein
    4. Lipoprotein

Ans.        (1) Chromoprotein

 

  1. Which is essential for the growth of root tip?
    1. Mn
    2. Zn
    3. Fe
    4. Ca

Ans.        (2) Zn                                                                    [NCERT class 11, page 198,248]

 

  1. The process which makes major differencebetween C3 and C4 plants is
    1. respiration
    2. glycolysis
    3. Calvin cycle
    4. Photorespiration

Ans.        (4) Photorespiration                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 220]

 

  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    1. Water hyacinth, growing in the standingwater, drains oxygen from water thatleads to the death of fishes.
    2. Offspring produced by the asexualreproduction are called clone.
    3. Microscopic, motile asexual reproductivestructures are called zoospores.
    4. In potato, banana and ginger, theplantlets arise from the internodespresent in the modified stem.

Ans.        (4) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.                                                                                                                                                                        [NCERT class 12, page 8]

 

  1. Which one of the following generates newgenetic combinations leading to variation?
    1. Nucellar polyembryony
    2. Vegetative reproduction
    3. Parthenogenesis
    4. Sexual reproduction

Ans.        (4) Sexual reproduction                                             [NCERT class 12, page 38]

 

  1. Match Column—I with Column—II andselect the correct option using the codesgiven below:
  Column—I   Column—II
a. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis
b. Formation of gametes (ii) Pistillate
c. Hyphae of higher Ascomycetes (iii) Syncarpous
d. Unisexual female flower (iv) Dikaryotic

Codes :

a             b              c                 d 

  1. (iii)            (i)            (iv)          (ii)
  2. (iv)             (iii)          (i)            (ii)
  3. (ii)            (i)            (iv)          (iii)
  4. (i)               (ii)           (iv)          (iii)

Ans.        (1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)                                        [NCERT class 11, page 23,75]

 

  1. In majority of angiosperms
    1. a small central cell is present in theembryo sac
    2. egg has a filiform apparatus
    3. there are numerous antipodal cells
    4. reduction division occurs in themegaspore mother cells

Ans.        (4) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells                               [NCERT class 12, page 26,27]

 

  1. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily isbrought about by the agency of
    1. Bats
    2. Water
    3. insects or wind
    4. birds

Ans.     (3) insects or wind                                                                                                [NCERT class 12, page 29]

 

  1. The ovule of an angiosperm is technicallyequivalent to
    1. megaspore
    2. megasporangium
    3. megasporophyll
    4. megaspore mother cell

Ans.     (2) megasporangium                                               [NCERT class 12, page 25]

 

  1. Taylor conducted the experiments to provesemiconservative mode of chromosomereplication on
    1. coli
    2. Vinca rosea
    3. Vicia faba
    4. Drosophila melanogaster

Ans.     (3) Vicia faba                                                              [NCERT class 12, page 106]

 

  1. The mechanism that causes a gene to movefrom one linkage group to another is called
    1. crossing-over
    2. inversion
    3. duplication
    4. translocation

Ans.     (4) translocation

 

  1. The equivalent of a structural gene is
    1. recon
    2. muton
    3. cistron
    4. operon

Ans.     (3) Cistron                                                                    [NCERT class 12, page 109]

 

  1. A true breeding plant is
    1. always homozygous recessive in itsgenetic constitution
    2. one that is able to breed on its own
    3. produced due to cross-pollination amongunrelated plant
    4. near homozygous and produces offspringof its own kind

Ans.     (4) near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind                   [NCERT class 12, page 70]

 

  1. Which of the following rRNAs acts asstructural RNA as well as ribozyme inbacteria?
    1. 8 S rRNA
    2. 5 S rRNA
    3. 18 S rRNA
    4. 23 S rRNA

Ans.     (4) 23 S rRNA                                                                              [NCERT class 12, page 115]

 

  1. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designedfor
    1. ensuring anaerobic conditions in theculture vessel
    2. purification of product
    3. addition of preservatives to the product
    4. availability of oxygen throughout theprocess

Ans.     (4) availability of oxygen throughout the process                                      [NCERT class 12, page 204]

 

  1. A molecule that can act as a genetic materialmust fulfill the traits given below, except
    1. it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
    2. it should be able to express itself in theform of ‘Mendelian characters’
    3. it should be able to generate its replica
    4. it should be unstable structurally andchemically

Ans.     (4) it should be unstable structurally and chemically                         [NCERT class 12, page 103]

 

  1. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzestranscription on one strand of the DNAwhich is called the
    1. antistrand
    2. template strand
    3. coding strand
    4. alpha strand

Ans.     (2) template strand                                                  [NCERT class 12, page 108]

 

  1. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of
    1. more closely related individuals withinsame breed for 4-6 generations
    2. animals within same breed withouthaving common ancestors
    3. two different related species
    4. superior males and females of differentbreeds

Ans.     (3) two different related species                                         [NCERT class 12, page 168]

 

  1. which of the following is correctregardingAIDS causative agent HIV?
    1. HIV does not escape but attacks theacquired immune response.
    2. HIV is enveloped virus containing onemolecule of single-stranded RNA and onemolecule of reverse transcriptase.
    3. HIV is enveloped virus that contains twoidentical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse
    4. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.

Ans.     (3) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase                                                                

 

  1. Among the following edible fishes, whichone is a marine fish having rich source ofomega-3 fatty acids?
    1. Mackerel
    2. Mystus
    3. Mangur
    4. Mrigala

Ans.     (1) Mackerel                                                                  [NCERT class 12, page 169]

 

  1. Match Column—I with Column—II and select the correct option using the codesgiven below:

Column—I                              Column—II

  1. Citric acid                                (i)    Trichoderma
  2. Cyclosporin A                         (ii)   Clostridium
  3. Statins                                    (iii) Aspergillus
  4. Butyric acid                           (iv) Monascus

Codes :

a          b         c          d

  1. (iii)      (iv)     (i)        (ii)
  2. (iii)        (i)        (ii)       (iv)
  3. (iii)        (i)        (iv)     (ii)
  4. (i)          (iv)     (ii)       (iii)

Ans.     (3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)                                              [NCERT class 12, page 183]

 

  1. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodiesreceiving effluents from.
    1. sugar industry
    2. domestic sewage
    3. dairy industry
    4. petroleum industry

Ans.     (4) petroleum industry                                                          [NCERT class 12, page 276]

 

  1. The principle of competitive exclusion wasstated by
    1. Verhulst and Pearl
    2. Darwin
    3. F. Gause
    4. MacArthur

Ans.     (3) G. F. Gause                                                           [NCERT class 12, page 234]

 

  1. Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?
    1. Dachigam National Park, Jammu &Kashmir
    2. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
    3. Bandhavgarh National Park, MadhyaPradesh
    4. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, ArunachalPradesh

Ans.     (1) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir                                                  

 

  1. A lake which is rich in organic waste mayresult in
    1. mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
    2. increased population of aquaticorganisms due to minerals
    3. drying of the lake due to algal bloon
    4. increased population of fish due to lots ofnutrients

Ans.     (1) mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen                        [NCERT class 12, page 275]

 

  1. The highest DDT concentration in aquaticfood chain shall occur in
    1. eel
    2. phytoplankton
    3. seagull
    4. crab

Ans.     (3) seagull                                                                [NCERT class 12, page 276]

 

  1. Which-of the following sets of diseases iscaused by bacteria?
    1. Herpes and influenza
    2. Cholera and tetanus
    3. Typhoid and smallpox
    4. Tetanus and mumps

Ans.     (2) Cholera and tetanus                                               [NCERT class 11, page 26]

 

 

  1. Match Column—I with Column—II forhousefly classification and select the correctoption using the codes given below :

Column—I                      Column—II

  1. Family                   (i)   Diptera
  2. order                      (ii) Arthropoda
  3. Class                 (iii)  Muscidae
  4. Phylum                   (iv) Insecta

Codes :

a      b    c  d

  1.          (iv)    (ii)       (i)        (iii)
  2.         (iii)    (i)        (iv)      (ii)
  3.        (iii)     (ii)       (iv)      (i)
  4.       (iv)      (iii)      (ii)       (i)

Ans.     (2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii).                                       [NCERT class 11, page 11]

 

  1. Choose the correct
    1. All Pisces have gills covered by an
    2. All mammals are viviparous.
    3. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
    4. All reptiles have a three-chambered

Ans.     (3) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins                      [NCERT class 11, page 56-59]

 

  1. Study the four statements (A-D) given belowand select the two correct ones out of them:
    1. Definition of biological species was givenby Ernst Mayr.
    2. Photoperiod does not affect reproductionin plants.
    3. Binomial nomenclature system wasgiven by R. H.
    4. In unicellular organisms, reproduction issynonymous with growth.

The two correctstatements are

(1) A and B                              (2) B and C                              (3) C and D                      (4) A and D

Ans.     (4) A and D                                                            [NCERT class 11, page 2-7]

 

  1. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?
    1. Vas deferens
    2. Seminal vesicles
    3. Mushroom glands
    4. Testes

Ans.     (2) Seminal vesicles                                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 114]

 

  1. Smooth muscles are
    1. voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
    2. involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
    3. voluntry, multinucleate, cylindrical
    4. involuntary, cylindrical, striated

Ans.     (2) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated                    [NCERT class 11, page 105,303]

 

 

  1. Oxidative phosphorylation is
    1. formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrateoxidation
    2. formation of ATP by transfer ofphosphate group from a substrateto ADP
    3. oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
    4. addition of phosphate group to ATP

Ans.     (1) formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation                                                                        [NCERT class 11, page 233]

 

  1. Which of the following is the least likely to beinvolved in stabilizing the three-dimensionalfolding of most proteins?
    1. Ester bonds
    2. Hydrogen bonds
    3. Electrostatic interaction
    4. Hydrophobic interaction

Ans.     (1) Ester bonds                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 150]

 

  1. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?

1

  1. Exothermic reaction with energy A inabsence of enzyme and B in presence ofenzyme
  2. Endothermic reaction with energy A inpresence of enzyme and B in absence ofenzyme
  3. Exothermic reaction with energy A inpresence of enzyme and B in absence ofenzyme
  4. Endothermic reaction with energy A inabsence of enzyme and B in presence ofenzyme

Ans.     (3) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme                                                                                       [NCERT class 11, page 156]

 

  1. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork,which checkpoint should be predominantlyactivated?
    1. Both G2/M and M
    2. G1/S
    3. G2/M
    4. M

Ans.     (2) G1/S                                                                         [NCERT class 11, page 164]

 

  1. Match the stages of meiosis in Column—I to their characteristic features in Column—II and select the correct option using the codes given below:
  Column—I   Column—II
a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b. Metaphase-I (ii) Terminalization of chiasmata
c. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place
d. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

a          b         c          d

  1. (iv) (iii)      (ii)       (i)
  2. (iii) (iv)     (ii)       (i)
  3. (i) (iv)     (ii)       (iii)
  4. (ii) (iv)     (iii)      (i)

Ans.     (2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)                               [NCERT class 11, page 168]

 

  1. Which hormones do stimulate theproduction of pancreatic juice andbicarbonate?
    1. Insulin and glucagon
    2. Angiotensin and epinephrine
    3. Gastrin and insulin
    4. Cholecystokinin and secretin

Ans.     (4) Cholecystokinin and secretin                             [NCERT class 11, page 338]

 

  1. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoliof the lungs is
    1. less than that of carbon dioxide
    2. equal to that in the blood
    3. more than that in the blood
    4. less than that in the blood

Ans.     (3) more than that in the blood                                        [NCERT class 11, page 272]

 

  1. Choose the correct
    1. Receptors do not produce graded
    2. Nociceptors respond to changes in
    3. Meissner’s corpuscles are thermo­receptors.
    4. Photoreceptors in the human eye aredepolarized during darkness and becomehyperpolarized in response to the light

Ans.     (4) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus.                          

 

  1. Graves’ disease is caused due to
    1. hypersecretion of adrenal gland
    2. hyposecretion of thyroid gland
    3. hypersecretion of thyroid gland
    4. hyposecretion of adrenal gland

Ans.     (3) hypersecretion of thyroid gland                                

 

 

  1. Name the ion responsible for unmasking ofactive sites for myosin for cross-bridgeactivity during muscle contraction.
    1. Potassium
    2. Calcium
    3. Magnesium
    4. Sodium

Ans.     (2) Calcium                                                     [NCERT class 11, page 307]

 

  1. Name the blood cells, whose reduction innumber can cause clotting disorder, leadingto excessive loss of blood from the
    1. Thrombocytes
    2. Erythrocytes
    3. Leucocytes
    4. Neutrophils

Ans.     (1) Thrombocyte                                                                   [NCERT class 11, page 280]

 

  1. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainlyon hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhancescellular glucose uptake and utilization.
    1. Gastrin
    2. Insulin
    3. Glucagon
    4. Secretin

Ans.     (2) Insulin                                                                   [NCERT class 11, page 336]

 

  1. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease ofskeletal system, may occur due to
    1. accumulation of uric acid leading toinflammation of joints
    2. immune disorder affecting neuro­muscular junction leading to fatigue
    3. high concentration of Ca++ and Na+
    4. decreased level of estrogen

Ans.     (4) decreased level of estrogen                                [NCERT class 11, page 312]

 

  1. Serum differs from blood in.
    1. lacking antibodies
    2. lacking globulins
    3. lacking albumins
    4. lacking clotting factors

Ans.     (4) lacking clotting factors                                          [NCERT class 11, page 279]

 

  1. Lungs do not collapse between breaths andsome air always remains in the lungs whichcan never be expelled because
    1. pressure in the lungs is higher than theatmospheric pressure.
    2. there is a negative pressure in the lungs
    3. there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
    4. there is a positive intrapleural pressure

Ans.     (3) there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls       

 

  1. The posterior pituitary gland is nota trueendocrine gland because
    1. it secretes enzymes
    2. it is provided with a duct
    3. only stores and releases hormones
    4. it is under the regulation of hypo­thalamus

Ans.     (3) only stores and releases hormones                           [NCERT class 11, page 332]

 

  1. The part of nephron involved in activereabsorption of sodium is
    1. descending limb of Henle’s loop
    2. distal convoluted tubule
    3. proximal convoluted tubule
    4. Bowman’s capsule

Ans.     (3) proximal convoluted tubule                     [NCERT class 11, page 294]

 

  1. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?
    1. Cu7
    2. LNG-20
    3. Multiload 375
    4. Lippes loop

Ans.     (2) LNG-20                                                                [NCERT class 12, page 60]

 

  1. Which of the following is incorrectregarding vasectomy?
    1. Irreversible sterility
    2. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
    3. No sperm occurs in epididymis
    4. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied.

Ans.     (3) No sperm occurs in epididymis                                   [NCERT class 12, page 62]

 

  1. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeresformed due to in vitro fertilization istransferred into
    1. cervix
    2. uterus
    3. fallopian tube
    4. fimbriae

Ans.     (2) Uterus                                                                 [NCERT class 12, page 64]

 

  1. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
    1. Efferent ductules →Rete testis → Vasdeferens → Epididymis
    2. Rete testis →Efferent ductules→ Epididymis → Vas deferens
    3. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferentductules → Vas deferens
    4. Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferentductules → Epididymis

Ans.     (2) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens             [NCERT class 12, page 43]

 

  1. Match Column—I with Column—II andselect the correct option using the codesgiven below :

ColumnI                              ColumnII

  1. Mons pubis (i)    Embryo formation
  2. Antrum (ii)   Sperm
  3. Trophectoderm (iii)  Female external genitalia
  4. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle

Codes :

a          b        c          d

  1. (i) (iv)     (iii)      (ii)
  2. (iii) (iv)     (ii)       (i)
  3. (iii) (iv)     (i)        (ii)
  4. (iii) (i)        (iv)     (ii)

Ans.     (3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)                                 [NCERT class 12, page 46,48]

 

  1. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogenprogesterone are produced by
    1. pituitary
    2. ovary
    3. placenta
    4. fallopian tube

Ans.     (3) placenta                                           [NCERT class 12, page 53]

 

  1. If a colour-blind man marries a woman whois homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is

(1) 1 (2)  0                                          (3)  5                              (4)  0.75

Ans.     (2) 0                                                                                   

 

  1. Genetic drift operates in
    1. slow reproductive population
    2. small isolated population
    3. large isolated population
    4. non-reproductive population

Ans.     (2) small isolated population                                               [NCERT class 12, page 137]

 

  1. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequentof heterozygous individual is represented by-

(1) q2 (2) p2                                                              (3) 2pq                              (4) pq

Ans.     (3) 2pq                                                                               [NCERT class 12, page 137]

 

  1. The chronological order of human evolution/ from early to the recent is
    1. Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
    2. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
    3. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
    4. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

Ans.     (3) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus  [NCERT class 12, page 140]

 

  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I- Formation of protobionts

II-Synthesis of organic monomers

III-Synthesis of organic polymers

IV-Formation of DNA-based genetic system

  1. II, III, IV, I
  2. I, II, III, IV
  3. I, III, II, IV
  4. ll, III, I, IV

Ans.     (4) ll, III, I, IV                                                                             [NCERT class 12, page 127]

 

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NEET Phase 2 2016 Solution Set XX

 

CHAPTER 1 : REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

CHAPTER 1

REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS

  • Life span –The period from birth to the natural death of an organism represents its life span.
  • life spans of organisms are not necessarily correlated with their sizes.
  • Life span of various organisms –

Name of organism

Life-span
Elephant 60–90 years
Dog 20–30 years
Butterfly 1-2 weeks
Crow 15 years
Parrot 140 years
Cow 20–25 years
Horse 60 years
Crocodile 60 years
Fruit fly 30 days
Tortoise 100-150 years
Rose 5–7 years
Banana tree 25 years
Rice plant 3–4 months
Banyan tree 200 years

Whatever be the life span, death of every individual organism is a certainty, i.e., no individual is immortal, except single-celled organisms.

  • There is no natural death in single-celled organisms as they divide and form 2 new cells.
  • Reproduction–
    • it is defined as a biological process in which an organism gives rise to young ones (offspring) similar to itself.
    • The offspring grow, mature and in turn produce new offspring. Thus, there is a cycle of birth, growth and death.
    • Reproduction enables the continuity of the species, generation after generation.
    • genetic variation is created and inherited during reproduction.
    • There is a large diversity in the mechanism of reproduction of organisms. The organism’s habitat, its internal physiology and several other factors are collectively responsible for how it reproduces.
  • Type of reproduction –

Reproduction is of two types–

When offspring is produced by a single parent with or without the involvement of gamete formation, the reproduction is Asexual.

When two parents (opposite sex) participate in the reproductive process and also involve fusion of male and female gametes, it is called sexual reproduction.

  • Asexual Reproduction
    • In this method, a single individual (parent) is capable of producing offspring.
    • The offspring that are produced are not only identical to one another but are also exact copies of their parent.These offspring are also genetically identical to each other. The term clone is used to describe such morphologically and genetically similar individuals.
    • Asexual reproduction is common among single-celled organisms, and in plants and animals with relatively simple organisations.
        • Binary Fission – In many single-celled organisms cell divides into two halves and each rapidly grows into an adult (e.g., Amoeba, Paramecium).
        • Budding – In yeast, the division is unequal and small buds are produced that remain attached initially to the parent cell which, eventually gets separated and mature into new yeast organisms (cells).
        • Special reproductive structures –Members of the Kingdom Fungi and simple plants such as algae reproduce through special asexual reproductive structures. The most common of these structures are zoospores that usually are microscopic motile structures. Other common asexual reproductive structures are conidia (Penicillium), buds (Hydra) and gemmules (sponge).
        • Vegetative propagation –vegetative reproduction is also asexual process as only one parent is involved. in plants, the term vegetative reproduction is frequently used. e.g., the units of vegetative propagation in plants –runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb. These structures are called vegetative propagules.In Protists and Monerans, (All unicellular) the organism or the parent cell divides into two to give rise to new individuals. Thus, in these organisms cell division is itself a mode of reproduction.

Water hyacinth, an aquatic weed, also known as ‘terror of Bengal’ propagate vegetatively. Earlier this plant was introduced in India because of its beautiful flowers and shape of leaves. Since it can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate and spread all over the water body in a short period of time, it drain oxygen from water body and cause death of fishes. (Eutrophication)

Bryophyllumshow vegetative propagation from the notches present at margins of leaves.

    • A sexual reproduction is the common method of reproduction in organisms that have a relatively simple organisation, like algae and fungi.
    • These organisms shift to sexual method of reproduction just before the onset of adverse conditions.
    • In higher plants both Asexual (vegetative) as well as sexual modes of reproduction are exhibited.
    • In most of the animals only sexual mode of reproduction is present.

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  • Sexual Reproduction

    • Sexual reproduction involves formation of the male and female gametes, either by the same individual or by different individuals of the opposite sex. These gametes fuse to form the zygote which develops to form the new organism.
    • It is an elaborate, complex and slow process as compared to asexual reproduction.
    • Because of the fusion of male and female gametes, sexual reproduction results in offspring that are not identical to the parents or amongst themselves.
    • Plants, animals, fungishow great diversity in external morphology, internal structure and physiology, but in sexual reproduction they share a similar pattern.
    • Juvenile / vegetative phase – All organisms have to reach a certain stage of growth and maturity in their life, before they can reproduce sexually. That period of growth is called the juvenile phase. It is known as vegetative phase in plants.
    • Reproductive phase –the beginning of the reproductive phase can be seen easily in the higher plants when they come to flower.
    • In some plants, where flowering occurs more than once, inter-flowering period is also known as juvenile period.
    • Plants-the annual and biennial types, show clear cut vegetative, reproductive and senescent phases, but in the perennial species it is very difficult to clearly define these phases.
    • Bamboo species flower only once in their life time, generally after 50-100 years, produce large number of fruits and die.
    • Strobilanthus kunthiana (neelakuranji), flowers once in 12 years. It is found in hilly areas in Kerala, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
    • In animals, the juvenile phase is followed by morphological and physiological changes prior to active reproductive behaviour.
    • birds living in nature lay eggs only seasonally. However, birds in captivity (as in poultry farms) can be made to lay eggs throughout the year. In this case, laying eggs is not related to reproduction but is a commercial exploitation for human welfare.
    • The females of placental mammals exhibit cyclical changes in the activities of ovaries and accessory ducts as well as hormones during the reproductive phase.
    • In non-primate mammals like cows, sheep, rats, deers, dogs, tiger, etc., such cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle where as in primates (monkeys, apes, and humans) it is called menstrual cycle.
    • Many mammals, especially those living in natural, wild conditions exhibit such cycles only during favourable seasons in their reproductive phase and are therefore called seasonal breeders. Many other mammals are reproductively active throughout their reproductive phase and hence are called continuous breeders.
    • Senescent phase – The end of reproductive phase can be considered as one of the parameters of senescence or old age. There are concomitant changes in the body (like slowing of metabolism, etc.) during this last phase of life span. Old age ultimately leads to death.
    • In both plants and animals, hormones are responsible for the transitions between the three phases. Interaction between hormones and certain environmental factors regulate the reproductive processes and the associated behavioural expressions of organisms.
  • Events in sexual reproduction
    • Sexual reproduction is characterised by the fusion (or fertilisation) of the male and female gametes, the formation of zygote and embryo
    • These sequential events may be grouped into three distinct stages namely, the pre-fertilisation, fertilisation and the post-fertilisation events.
  • Pre-fertilisation Events
    • These include all the events of sexual reproduction prior to the fusion of gametes.
    • The two main pre-fertilisation events aregametogenesisandgamete transfer.
    • Gametogenesis
      • It refers to the process of formation of the two types of gametes – male and female.
      • Gametes are haploid cells.
      • In some algae the two gametes are so similar in appearance that it is not possible to categorise them into male and female gametes.They are hence, are calledhomogametes (isogametes).
      • However, in a majority of sexually reproducing organisms the gametes produced are of two morphologically distinct types (heterogametes). In such organisms the male gamete is called theantherozoid or sperm and the female gamete is called the egg or

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Sexuality in organisms:

  • Plants may have both male and female reproductive structures in the same plant (bisexual) or on different plants (unisexual).
  • In several fungi and plants, terms such as homothallic and monoecious are used to denote the bisexual condition and heterothallic and dioecious are the terms used to describe unisexual condition.
  • In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is staminate, e., bearing stamens, while the female ispistillate or bearing pistils.
  • e.g., examples of monoecious plants – cucurbitsand coconuts
  • dioecious plants – Papayaand date palm.
  • Earthworms, sponge, tapeworm and leech are examples of bisexual animals (hermaphrodite). Cockroach is an example of a unisexual species.
  • Cell division during gamete formation:
  • Gametes in all heterogametic species are of two types namely, male and Gametes are haploid though the parent plant body from which they arise may be either haploid or diploid.
  • A haploid parent produces gametes by mitotic division like in monera, fungi, algae and bryophytes
  • In pteridophytes, gymnosperms, angiosperms and most of the animals including human beings, the parental body isIn these, specialised cells calledmeiocytes (gamete mother cell) undergo meiosis.
  • At the end of meiosis, only one set of chromosomesgets incorporated into each

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Name of organism Chromosome number in meiocyte (2n) Chromosome number in gamete (n)
Human beings 46 23
House fly 12 6
Rat 42 21
Dog 78 39
Cat 38 19
Fruit fly 8 4
Ophioglossum (a fern) 1260 630
Apple 34 17
Rice 24 12
Maize 20 10
Potato 48 24
Butterfly 380 190
Onion 32 16
  • Gamete Transfer:
  • After formation, male and female gametes must be physically brought together to facilitate fusion (fertilisation).
  • In most of organisms, male gamete is motile and the female gamete is stationary.
  • Exceptions – few fungi and algae in which both types of gametes are motile.
  • For transfer of male gametes, a medium is needed. In several simple plants like algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes, water is the medium for gamete transfer.
  • A large number of the male gametes, however, fail to reach the female gametes. To compensate this loss of male gametes during transport, the number of male gametes produced is very high.
  • In seed plants, pollen grains are the carriers of male gametes and ovule have the egg. Pollen grains produced in anthers therefore, have tobe transferred to the stigma before it can lead to fertilization.
  • In bisexual, self-fertilising plants, e.g., peas, transfer of pollen grains to the stigma is relatively easy as anthers and stigma are located close to each other; pollen grains soon after they are shed, come in contact with the stigma.
  • in cross pollinating plants (including dioecious plants), a specialised event called pollination facilitates transfer of pollen grains to the stigma.
  • Pollen grains germinate on the stigma and the pollen tubes carrying the male gametes reach the ovule and discharge male gametes near the egg.
  • In dioecious animals, since male and female gametes are formed in different individuals, the organism must evolve a special mechanism for gamete transfer. Successful transfer and coming together of gametes is essential for the most critical event in sexual reproduction, the fertilisation.

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  • Fertilisation
  • The most vital event of sexual reproduction is perhaps the fusion of gametes. This process is also calledsyngamyresults in the formation of a diploid
  • in some organisms like rotifers, honeybees and even some lizards and birds (turkey), the female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilisation. This phenomenon is called
  • In most aquatic organisms, such as a majority of algae and fishes as well as amphibians, syngamy occurs in the external medium (water), i.e., outside the body of the organism. This type of gametic fusion is called external fertilisation.

Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation show great synchrony between the sexes and release a large number of gametes into the surrounding medium (water) in order to enhance the chances of syngamy. This happens in the bony fishes and frogs where a large number of offspring are produced. A major disadvantage is that the offspring are extremely vulnerable to predators threatening their survival up to adulthood.

  • In many terrestrial organisms, belonging to fungi, higher animals such as reptiles birds, mammals and in a majority of plants (bryophytes, pteridophytes, gymnosperms and angiosperms), syngamy occurs insidethe body of the organism, hence the process is called internal fertilisation.

In all these organisms, egg is formed inside the female body where they fuse with the male gamete. In organisms exhibiting internal fertilisation, the male gamete is motile and has to reach the egg in order to fuse with it. In these even though the number of sperms produced is very large, there is a significant reduction in the number of eggs produced. In seed plants, however, the non-motile male gametes are carried to female gamete by pollen tubes.

  • Post-fertilisation Events
  • Events in sexual reproduction after the formation of zygote are called post-fertilisation events.
  • Zygote :
    • Formation of the diploid zygote is universal in all sexually reproducing organisms.
    • In organisms with external fertilisation, zygote is formed in the external medium (usually water), whereas in those exhibiting internal fertilisation, zygote is formed inside the body of the organism.
    • Further development of the zygote depends on the type of life cycle the organism has and the environment it is exposed to.
    • In organisms belonging to fungi and algae, zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to dessication and damage. It undergoes a period of rest before germination.
    • In organisms with haplontic life cycle, zygote divides by meiosis to form haploid spores that grow into haploid individuals.
    • Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of species between organisms of one generation and the next.
    • Every sexually reproducing organism, including human beings begin life as a single cell-the zygote.
  • Embryogenesis :
    • It refers to the process of development ofembryo from the zygote.
    • During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes cell division (mitosis) and cell differentiation. While cell divisions increase the number of cells in the developing embryo; cell differentiation helps groups of cells to undergo certain modifications to form specialised tissues and organs to form an organism.
    • Animals are categorised into oviparous and viviparous based on whether the development of the zygote take place outside the body of the female parent or inside, i.e., whether they lay fertilised/unfertilised eggs or give birth to young ones.
    • In oviparous animals like reptiles and birds,the fertilised eggs covered by hard calcareous shell are laid in a safe place in the environment; after a period of incubation young ones hatch out.
    • in viviparous animals (majority of mammals including human beings), the zygote develops into a young one inside the body of the female organism. After attaining a certain stage of growth, the young ones are delivered out of the body of the female organism. Because of proper embryonic care and protection, the chances of survival of young ones is greater in viviparous organisms.
    • In flowering plants, the zygote is formed inside the ovule. After fertilisation the sepals, petals and stamens of the flower wither and fall off.
    • The pistil however, remains attached to the plant. The zygote develops into the embryo and the ovules develop into the seed. The ovary develops into the fruit which develops a thick wall called pericarp that is protective in function. After dispersal, seeds germinate under favourable conditions to produce new plants.1downloadble pdf file is available…please click on the link below…

CHAPTER 1 – REPRODUCTION IN ORGANISMS