NEET 2017 Biology solution (With NCERT Reference)

NEET 2017 Biology solution

(With NCERT Reference)

1. Which one of the following statements is correct, with reference to enzymes?

  1. Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + Coenzyme
  2. Coenzyme = Apoenzyme + Holoenzyme
  3. Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + Co-factor
  4. Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + Coenzyme

Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 159]

2. A decrease in blood pressure / volume will not cause the release of:

(1) Atrial natriuretic factor

(2) Aldosterone

(3) ADH

(4) Renin
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 297]

3. Which cells of “Crypts of Lieberkuhn” secrete antibacterial lysozyme?

(1) Paneth cells

(2) Zymogen cells

(3) Kupffer cells

(4) Argentaffin cells
Ans. (1)

4. Which of the following are not polymeric?

(1) Proteins

(2) Polysaccharides

(3) Lipids

(4) Nucleic acids
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 146]

5. Functional megaspore in an angiosperm develops into?

(1) Endosperm

(2) Embryo sac

(3) Embryo

(4) Ovule
Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 26]

6. Myelin sheath is produced by:

  1. Astrocytes and Schwann cells
  2. Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts
  3. Osteoclasts and Astrocytes
  4. Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 317]

7. Attractants and rewards are required for :

(1) Entomophily

(2) Hydrophily

(3) Cleistogamy

(4) Anemophily
Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 30,237]

8. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on :

  1. Pre-synaptic membrane
  2. Tips of axons
  3. Post-synaptic membrane
  4. Membrane of synaptic vesicles

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 320]

9. Coconut fruit is a :

(1) Berry

(2) Nut

(3) Capsule

(4) Drupe
Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 76]

10. Adult human RBCs are enucleated. Which of the following statement(s) is/are most appropriate explanation for this feature?

a. They do not need to reproduce

b. They are somatic cells

c. They do not metabolize

d. All their internal space is available for oxygen transport
(1) only (a)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b) and (c)

(4) only (d)
Ans. (4)

11. Capacitation occurs in:

  1. Epididymis
  2. Vas deferens
  3. Female reproductive tract
  4. Rete testis

Ans. (3)

12. Which of the following are found in extreme saline conditions ?

(1) Eubacteria

(2) Cyanobacteria

(3) Mycobacteria

(4) Archaebacteria
Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 19]

13. Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when :

  1. K = N
  2. K > N
  3. K < N
  4. The value of ‘r’ approaches zero

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 231]

14. Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents :

  1. Directional as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
  2. Disruptive as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
  3. Stabilizing followed by disruptive as it stabilizes the population to produce higher yielding cows
  4. Stabilizing selection as it stabilizes this character in the population

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 136]

15. Select the mismatch :

  1. Rhodospirillum – Mycorrhiza
  2. Anabaena – Nitrogen fixer
  3. Rhizobium – Alfalfa
  4. Frankia – Alnus

Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 202]

16. Good vision depends on adequate intake of carotene rich food :

Select the best option from the following statements :

  1. Vitamin A derivatives are formed from carotene
  2. The photopigments are embedded in the membrane discs of the inner segment
  3. Retinal is a derivative of Vitamin A
  4. Retinal is a light absorbing part of all the visual photopigments

Options :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) (2) (a) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (b)
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 324]

17. The DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualised after staining with :

(1) Acetocarmine

(2) Aniline blue

(3) Ethidium bromide

(4) Bromophenol blue
Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 198]

18. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from :

(1) Stomach (2) Kidneys (3) Intestine (4) Heart
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 286]

19. The vascular cambium normally gives rise to :

(1) Primary phloem (2) Secondary xylem (3) Periderm (4) Phelloderm
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 95]

20. Thalassemia and sickle cell anemia are caused due to a problem in globin molecule synthesis. Select the correct statement :

  1. Both are due to a quantitative defect in globin chain synthesis
  2. Thalassemia is due to less synthesis of globin molecules
  3. Sickel cell anemia is due to a quantitative problem of globin molecules
  4. Both are due to a qualitative defect in globin chain synthesis

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 89]

21. The genotypes of a husband and Wife are IAIB and IAi

Among the blood types of their children, how many different genotypes and phenotypes are possible?

  1. 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
  2. 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
  3. 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
  4. 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 77]

22. Which of the following facilitates opening of stomatal aperture ?

  1. Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
  2. Radial orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
  3. Longitudinal orientation of cellulose microfibrils in the cell wall of guard cells
  4. Contraction of outer wall of guard cells

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 187]

23. In Bougainvillea thorns are the modifications of :

(1) Adventitious root (2) Stem (3) Leaf (4) Stipules
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 68]

24. Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants ?

  1. Biodiversity hot spots
  2. Amazon rainforest
  3. Himalayan region
  4. Wildlife safari parks

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 267]

25. Root hairs develop from the region of :

(1) Elongation (2) root cap (3) Meristematic activity (4) Maturation
Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 67]

26. A disease caused by an autosomal primary nondisjunction is :

(1) Klinefelter’s Syndrome

(2) Turner’s Syndrome

(3) Sickel Cell Anemia

(4) Down’s Syndrome
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 91]

27. The water potential of pure water is :

  1. Less than zero
  2. More than zero but less than one
  3. More than one
  4. Zero

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 179]

28. Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during mitosis ?

1. Condensation ( nuclear membrane disassembly ( arrangement at equator ( centromere division ( segregation ( telophase
2.Condensation ( crossing over ( nuclear membrane disassembly ( segregation ( telophase
3. Condensation ( arrangement at equator ( centromere division ( segregation ( telophase

4. Condensation ( nuclear membrane disassembly ( crossing over ( segregation ( telophase
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 164-166]

29. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein before marketing is called :

  1. Downstream processing
  2. Bioprocessing
  3. Postproduction processing
  4. Upstream processing

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 204]

30. A temporary endocrine gland in the human body is :

(1) Corpus cardiacum (2) corpus luteum (3) Corpus allatum (4) Pineal gland
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 332,337; 12th Pg 51]

31. Which of the following is made up of dead cells?

(1) Collenchyma (2) Phellem
(3) Phloem (4) Xylem parenchyma
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 86,87,96]

32. An example of colonial alga is :

(1) Volvox (2) Ulothrix (3) Spirogyra (4) Chlorella
Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 30,31]

33. Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a)Gonorrhea. (i)HIV

(b) Syphilis. (ii)Neisseria

(c)Genital Warts (iii) Treponema

(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus

(a) (b) (c) (d)
iii iv i ii
iv ii iii i
iv iii ii i
ii iii iv i
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 63]

34. The function of copper ions in copper releasing IUD’s is :

  1. They inhibit gametogenesis
  2. They make uterus unsuitable for implantation
  3. They inhibt ovulation
  4. The suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 60]

35. Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids ?

(1) Secondary treatment (2) Primary treatment
(3) Sludge treatment (4) Tertiary treatment
Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 184]

36. An important characteristic that Hemichordates share with Chordates is :

  1. Ventral tubular nerve cord
  2. Pharynx with gill slits
  3. Pharynx without gill slits
  4. Absence of notochord

Ans. (2) Gills are given but gill slits are not [NCERT 11th Page 54]

37. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material came from the experiments of :

  1. Hershey and Chase
  2. Avery, Mcleod and McCarty
  3. Hargobind Khorana
  4. Griffith

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 101]

38. Among the following characters, which one was not considered by Mendel in his experiments on pea ?

  1. Trichomes – Glandular or non-glandular
  2. Seed – Green or Yellow
  3. Pod – Inflated or Constricted
  4. Stem – Tall or Dwarf

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 71]

39. Plants which produce characteristic pneumatophores and show vivipary belong to :

(1) Halophytes (2) Psammophytes (3) Hydrophytes (4) Mesophytes
Ans. (1) viviparous germination is not given [NCERT 11th Page 67]

40. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of :

(1) Cartilaginous joint (2) Synovial joint (3) Saddle joint (4) Fibrous joint
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 312]

41. With reference to factors affecting the rate of photosynthesis, which of the following statements is not correct ?

  1. Increasing atmospheric CO2 concentration up to 0.05% can enhance CO2 fixation rate
  2. C3 plants respond to higher temperatures with enhanced photosynthesis while C4 plants have much lower temperature optimum
  3. Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can be grown in CO2 – enriched atmosphere for higher yield
  4. Light saturation for CO2 fixation occurs at 10% of full sunlight

Ans. (2) All four statements are clearly mentioned. [NCERT 11th Page 223, 224]

42. DNA fragments are:

  1. Negatively charged
  2. Neutral
  3. Either positively or negatively charged depending on their size
  4. Positively charged

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 198]

43. Which of the following components provides sticky character to the bacterial cell ?

  1. Nuclear membrane
  2. Plasma membrane
  3. Glycocalyx
  4. Cell wall

Ans. (3) Exactly sticky character is not given but its very obvious [NCERT 11th Page 128]

44. Which of the following options best represents the enzyme composition of pancreatic juice?

  1. amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase
  2. peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin
  3. Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase
  4. amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, rennin

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 262]

45. Which among these is the correct combination of aquatic mammals ?

  1. Dolphins, Seals, Trygon
  2. Whales, Dolphins, Seals
  3. Trygon, Whales, Seals
  4. Seals, Dolphins, Sharks

Ans. (2) Seals is not given [NCERT 11th Page 56,57,60]

46. Fruit and leaf drop at early stages can be prevented by the application of:

(1) Ethylene (2) Auxins (3) Gibberellic acid (4) Cytokinins
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 248]

47. Select the correct route for the passage of sperms in male frogs:

  1. Testes –> Vasa efferentia –>Kidney –>Seminal Vesicle –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca
  2. Testes –>Vasa efferentia –> Bidder’s canal —> Ureter –> Cloaca
  3. Testes –>Vasa efferentia –> Kidney –>Bidder’s canal –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca
  4. Testes –> Bidder’s canal –> Kidney –> Vasa efferentia –> Urinogenital duct –> Cloaca

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 119]

48. In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?

  1. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
  2. Artificial Insemination
  3. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
  4. Intrauterine transfer

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 64]

49. Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?

  1. Grassland ecosystem
  2. Pond ecosystem
  3. Lake ecosystem
  4. Forest ecosystem

Ans. (4)

50. Lungs are made up of air-filled sacs, the alveoli. They do not collapse even after forceful expiration, because of:

  1. Inspiratory Reserve Volume
  2. Tidal Volume
  3. Expiratory Reserve Volume
  4. Residual Volume

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 272]

51. Presence of plants arranged into well defined vertical layers depending on their height can be seen best in:

(1) Tropical Rain Forest (2) Grassland
(3) Temperate Forest (4) Tropical Savannah
Ans. (1) not given in exact wordings in NCERT.

52. Which of the following statements is correct?

  1. The descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.
  2. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to water.
  3. The descending limb of loop of Henle is permeable to electrolytes.
  4. The ascending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 294 ]

53. Alexander Von Humbolt described for the first time:

  1. Laws of limiting factor
  2. Species area relationships
  3. Population Growth equation
  4. Ecological Biodiversity

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 262]

54. Zygotic meiosis is characteristic of;

(1) Fucus (2) Funaria (3) Chlamydomonas (4) Marchantia
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 42]

55. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that codes for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base at position 901 is deleted such that the length of the RNA becomes 998 bases, how many codons will be altered?

(1) 11 (2) 33 (3) 333 (4) 1
Ans. (2) Based on Frameshift mutation [NCERT 12th Page 114]

56. Flowers which have single ovule in the ovary and are packed into inflorescence are usually pollinated by:

(1) Bee (2) Wind (3) Bat (4) Water
Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 29]

57. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often due to non-acceptance by the patient’s body. Which type of immune-response is responsible for such rejections?

(1) Cell – mediated immune response
(2) Hormonal immune response
(3) Physiological immune response
(4) Autoimmune response
Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 152]

58. Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are:

  1. Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
  2. Haplodiplontic, Diplontic
  3. Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
  4. Haplontic, Diplontic

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 43]

59. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cell is known as :

(1) Vector (2) Plasmid (3) Structural gene (4) Selectable marker
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 199]

60. A dioecious flowering plant prevents both :

(1) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(2) Geitonogamy and xenogamy
(3) Cleistogamy and xenogamy
(4) Autogamy and xenogamy
Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 31]

61. Which statement is wrong for Krebs’ cycle ?

  1. There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2
  2. During conversion of succinyl CoA to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is synthesised
  3. The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl CoA) with pyruvic acid to yield citric acid
  4. There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+ H+

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 231]

62. Phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) is the primary CO2 acceptor in:

  1. C4 plants
  2. C2 plants
  3. C3 and C4 plants
  4. C3 plants

Ans. (1) [NCERT 11th Page 219]

63. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are used to elongate:

  1. The lagging strand towards replication fork.
  2. The leading strand away from replication fork.
  3. The lagging strand away from the replication fork.
  4. The leading strand towards replication fork.

Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 107, Fig 6.8]

64. Which of the following RNAs should be most abundant in animal cell ?

(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA (3) mi-RNA (4) r-RNA
Ans. (4)

65. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in reproduction, acts on:

  1. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and FSH.
  2. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
  3. posterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin.
  4. anterior pituitary gland and stimulates secretion of LH and oxytocin.

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 47]

66. What is the criterion for DNA fragments movement on agarose gel during gel electrophoresis?

  1. The smaller the fragment size, the farther it moves
  2. Positively charged fragments move to farther end
  3. Negatively charged fragments do not move
  4. The larger the fragment size, the farther it moves

Ans. (1) [NCERT 12th Page 198]

67. Hypersecretion of Growth Hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height, because:

  1. Epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
  2. Bones loose their sensitivity to Growth Hormone in adults.
  3. Muscle fibres do not grow in size after birth.
  4. Growth Hormone becomes inactive in adults.

Ans. (1)

68. DNA replication in bacteria occurs:

  1. Within nucleolus
  2. Prior to fission
  3. Just before transcription
  4. During S phase

Ans. (2)

69. Which one from those given below is the period for Mendel’s hybridization experiments ?

  1. 1840 – 1850
  2. 1857 – 1869
  3. 1870 – 1877
  4. 1856 – 1863

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 70]

70. Viroids differ from viruses in having;

  1. DNA molecules without protein coat
  2. RNA molecules with protein coat
  3. RNA molecules without protein coat
  4. DNA molecules with protein coat

Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 27]

71. MALT constitutes about percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

(1) 20% (2) 70% (3) 10% (4) 50%
Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 154]

72. Which of the following is correctly matched for the product produced by them ?

  1. Methanobacterium : Lactic acid
  2. Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid
  3. Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol
  4. Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics

Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 182]

73. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall, pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen ?

(1) Pseudomonas (2) Mycoplasma (3) Nostoc (4) Bacillus
Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 20]

74. Which of the following represents order of Horse?

(1) Perissodactyla (2) Caballus (3) Ferus (4) Equidae
Ans. (1)

75. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime.

Select the best option from the following statements.

  1. Frog is a poikilotherm.
  2. Frog does not have any coronary circulation.
  3. Heart is “myogenic” in nature.
  4. Heart is auto excitable

(1) Only(d) (2) (a) and (b) (3) (c)and(d) (4) Only(c)
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 287]

76. Homozygous pure lines in cattle can be obtained by:

  1. mating of unrelated individuals of same breed.
  2. mating of individuals of different breed.
  3. mating of individuals of different species.
  4. mating of related individuals of same breed.

Ans. (4) [NCERT 12th Page 167]

77. Identify the wrong statement in context of heartwood:

  1. It is highly durable
  2. It conducts water and minerals efficiently
  3. It comprises dead elements with highly lignified walls
  4. Organic compounds are deposited in it

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 96]

78. Anaphase Promoting Complex (APC) is a protein degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, which of the following is expected to occur?

  1. Chromosomes will be fragmented
  2. Chromosomes will not segregate
  3. Recombination of chromosome arms will occur
  4. Chromosomes will not condense

Ans. (2)

79. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP ?

(1) Ribosome (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondrion (4) Lysosome
Ans. (3) [NCERT 11th Page 135]

80. Mycorrhizae are the example of:

(1) Amensalism (2) Antibiosis (3) Mutualism (4) Fungistasis
Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 237]

81. Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans only Y pairs are true ribs. Select the option that correctly represents values of X and Y and provides their explanation:

  1. X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and sternum on the two ends.
  2. X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
  3. X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally attached to vertebral column but are free on ventral side.
  4. X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are attached dorsally to vertebral column and ventrally to the sternum.

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 310]

82. In case of poriferans, the spongocoel is lined with flagellated cells called:

  1. oscula
  2. choanocytes
  3. mesenchymal cells
  4. ostia

Ans. (2) [NCERT 11th Page 49]

83. Which one of the following statements is not valid for aerosols?

  1. They alter rainfall and monsoon patterns
  2. They cause increased agricultural productivity
  3. They have negative impact on agricultural land
  4. They are harmful to human health

Ans. (2)

84. A baby boy aged two years is admitted to play school and passes through a dental check – up. The dentist observed that the boy had twenty teeth. Which teeth were absent?

  1. Canines
  2. Pre-molars
  3. Molars
  4. Incisors

Ans. (2)

85. Select the mismatch

  1. Cycas – Dioecious
  2. Salvinia – Heterosporous
  3. Equisetum – Homosporous
  4. Pinus – Dioecious

Ans. (4) [NCERT 11th Page 39]

86. The morphological nature of the edible part of coconut is:

  1. Cotyledon
  2. Endosperm
  3. Pericarp
  4. Perisperm

Ans. (2) [NCERT 12th Page 35]

87. Double fertilization is exhibited by :

  1. Algae
  2. Fungi
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Gymnosperms

Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 34]

88. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of;

(1) Fungi (2) Animals (3) Bacteria (4) Plants
Ans. (3) [NCERT 12th Page 111]

89. The association of histone HI with a nucleosome indicates:

  1. DNA replication is occurring.
  2. The DNA is condensed into a Chromatin Fibre.
  3. The DNA double helix is exposed.
  4. Transcription is occurring.

Ans. (2)

90. The region of Biosphere Reserve which is legally protected and where no human activity is allowed is known as:

  1. Buffer zone
  2. Transition zone
  3. Restoration zone
  4. Core zone

Ans. (4)

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Neet 2017 biology solution


NEET Phase-II (24-07-2016) Biology Solution {Code – XX}

NEET Phase-II Biology solution

Code – XX

Date – 24-07-2016


  1. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the samerestriction endonuclease can be joined toform a recombinant plasmid using
    1. ligase
    2. Eco RI
    3. Taq polymerase
    4. polymerase III

Ans.        (1) Ligase                                                                              [NCERT class 12, page 197]      


  1. Which of the following is not a component ofdownstream processing?
    1. Expression
    2. Separation
    3. Purification
    4. Preservation

Ans.        (1) Expression                                                  [NCERT class 12, page 205]


  1. Which of the following restriction enzymesproduces blunt ends?
    1. Hind III
    2. Sal I
    3. Eco RV
    4. Xho I

Ans.        (3) Eco RV


  1. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to afour-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase(ADA) deficiency?
    1. Radiation therapy
    2. Gene therapy
    3. Chemotherapy
    4. Immunotherapy

Ans.        (2) Gene therapy                                                                      [NCERT class 12, page 211]


  1. How many hot spots of biodiversity in theworld have been identified till date byNorman Myers?
    1. 43
    2. 17
    3. 25
    4. 34

Ans.        (4) 34                                                                            [NCERT class 12, page 266]


  1. The primary producers of the deep-seahydrothermal vent ecosystem are
    1. coral reefs
    2. green algae
    3. chemosynthetic bacteria
    4. blue-green algae

Ans.        (3) chemosynthetic bacteria                                             [NCERT class 12, page 226]


  1. Which of the following is correct forr-selected species?
    1. Small number of progeny with large size
    2. Large number of progeny with small size
    3. Large number of progeny with large size
    4. Small number of progeny with small size

Ans.        (2) Large number of progeny with small size


  1. If’+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘-’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutralinteraction, then the population interactionrepresented by ‘+’ refers to
    1. parasitism
    2. mutualism
    3. amensalism
    4. commensalism

Ans.        (1) parasitism                                                [NCERT class 12, page 232]


  1. Which of the following is correctly matched?
    1. Stratification—Population
    2. Aerenchyma—Opuntia
    3. Age pyramid—Biome
    4. Parthenium hysterophorus—Threat to biodiversity

Ans.        (4) Parthenium hysterophorus—Threat to biodiversity                                        [NCERT class 12, page 265]


  1. Red List contains data or information on
    1. marine vertebrates only
    2. all economically important plant
    3. plants whose products are ininternational trade
    4. threatened species

Ans.        (4) threatened species                                                           [NCERT class 12, page 263]


  1. Which one of the following is wrongfor fungi?
    1. They are both unicellular and
    2. They are eukaryotic.
    3. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall.
    4. They are heterotrophic

Ans.        (3) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall                                                        [NCERT class 11, page 22]


  1. Methanogens belong to
    1. Slime moulds
    2. Eubacteria
    3. Archaebacteria
    4. Dinoflagellates

Ans.        (3) Archaebacteria                                                             [NCERT class 11, page 19]


  1. Select thewrong
    1. Diatoms are microscopic and floatpassively in water.
    2. The walls of diatoms are easily
    3. ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed by thecell walls of diatoms.
    4. Diatoms are chief producers in the

Ans.        (2) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.            [NCERT class 11, page 20]



  1. The label of a herbarium sheetdoes not carry information on
    1. height of the plant
    2. date of collections
    3. name of collector
    4. local names

Ans.        (1) height of the plant                                                           [NCERT class 11, page 12]


  1. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extremeenvironmental conditions because of
    1. presence of vessels
    2. broad hardy leaves
    3. superficial stomata
    4. thick cuticle

Ans.        (4) thick cuticle                                                              [NCERT class 11, page 38]


  1. which one of the following statements iswrong?
    1. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as
    2. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment.
    3. Algin is obtained from red algae, andcarrageenan from brown algae.
    4. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and

Ans.        (3) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae   [NCERT class 11, page 32]


  1. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
    1. calyx
    2. gynoecium
    3. androecium
    4. corolla

Ans.        (3) androecium                                                                   [NCERT class 11, page 75]


  1. How many plants among, indigophera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, Mustard, Groundnut, Radish, Gram, and Turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?
    1. six
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five

Ans.        (3) Four (Salvia, Mustard, Radish, Turnip)              [NCERT class 11, page 75]


  1. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
    1. Cassia
    2. Brassica
    3. Trifolium
    4. Pisum

Ans.        (2) Brassica                                                              [NCERT class 11, page 72,79]


  1. Free-central placentation is found in
    1. Citrus
    2. Dianthus
    3. Argemone
    4. Brassica

Ans.        (2) Dianthus                                                                      [NCERT class 11, page 75]



  1. Cortex is the region found between
    1. endodermis and vascular bundle
    2. epidermis and stele
    3. pericycle and endodermis
    4. endodermis and pith

Ans.        (2) epidermis and stele                                              [NCERT class 11, page 91]


  1. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
    1. are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels
    2. originate in the lumen of vessels
    3. Characterize the sapwood
    4. are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels

Ans.        (4) are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels


  1. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
    1. deoxyribonuclease
    2. lysozyme
    3. ribozyme
    4. ligase

Ans.        (3) ribozyme                                                                    [NCERT class 11, page 154]


  1. Select the
    1. Methanogens—Prokaryote
    2. Gas vacuoles—Green bacteria
    3. Large central vacuoles—Animal cells
    4. Protists—Eukaryotes

Ans.        (3) Large central vacuoles—Animal cells            [NCERT class 11, page 129]


  1. Select the wrong
    1. Mycoplasma is a wall-less
    2. Bacterial cell wall is made up of
    3. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved inmotility of bacterial cells.
    4. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells.

Ans.        (3) Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of bacterial cells           [NCERT class 11, page 129]


  1. A cell organelle containing hydrolyticenzymes is
    1. mesosome
    2. lysosome
    3. microsome
    4. ribosome

Ans.        (2) lysosomes                                                                  [NCERT class 11, page 134]


  1. During cell growth, DNA synthesis takesplace in
    1. M phase
    2. S phase
    3. G1 phase
    4. G2 phase

Ans.        (2) S phase                                                                        [NCERT class 11, page 163]



  1. Which of the following biomolecules iscommon to respiration-mediated breakdownof fats, carbohydrates and proteins?
    1. Acetyl CoA
    2. Glucose-6-phosphate
    3. Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate
    4. Pyruvic acid

Ans.        (1) Acetyl CoA                                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 236]


  1. A few drops of sap were collected by cuttingacross a plant stem by a suitable method.The sap was tested chemically. Which one ofthe following test results indicates that it isphloem sap?
    1. Absence of sugar
    2. Acidic
    3. Alkaline
    4. Low refractive index

Ans.        (3) Alkaline


  1. You are given a tissue with its potential fordifferentiation in an artificial culture. Whichof the following pairs of hormones would youadd to the medium to secure shoots as wellas roots?
    1. Gibberellin and abscisic acid
    2. IAA and gibberellins
    3. Auxin and cytokinin
    4. Auxin and abscisic acid

Ans.        (3) Auxin and cytokinin                                              [NCERT class 12, page 177]


  1. Phytochrome is a
    1. Chromoprotein
    2. Flavoprotein
    3. Glycoprotein
    4. Lipoprotein

Ans.        (1) Chromoprotein


  1. Which is essential for the growth of root tip?
    1. Mn
    2. Zn
    3. Fe
    4. Ca

Ans.        (2) Zn                                                                    [NCERT class 11, page 198,248]


  1. The process which makes major differencebetween C3 and C4 plants is
    1. respiration
    2. glycolysis
    3. Calvin cycle
    4. Photorespiration

Ans.        (4) Photorespiration                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 220]


  1. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    1. Water hyacinth, growing in the standingwater, drains oxygen from water thatleads to the death of fishes.
    2. Offspring produced by the asexualreproduction are called clone.
    3. Microscopic, motile asexual reproductivestructures are called zoospores.
    4. In potato, banana and ginger, theplantlets arise from the internodespresent in the modified stem.

Ans.        (4) In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from the internodes present in the modified stem.                                                                                                                                                                        [NCERT class 12, page 8]


  1. Which one of the following generates newgenetic combinations leading to variation?
    1. Nucellar polyembryony
    2. Vegetative reproduction
    3. Parthenogenesis
    4. Sexual reproduction

Ans.        (4) Sexual reproduction                                             [NCERT class 12, page 38]


  1. Match Column—I with Column—II andselect the correct option using the codesgiven below:
  Column—I   Column—II
a. Pistils fused together (i) Gametogenesis
b. Formation of gametes (ii) Pistillate
c. Hyphae of higher Ascomycetes (iii) Syncarpous
d. Unisexual female flower (iv) Dikaryotic

Codes :

a             b              c                 d 

  1. (iii)            (i)            (iv)          (ii)
  2. (iv)             (iii)          (i)            (ii)
  3. (ii)            (i)            (iv)          (iii)
  4. (i)               (ii)           (iv)          (iii)

Ans.        (1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)                                        [NCERT class 11, page 23,75]


  1. In majority of angiosperms
    1. a small central cell is present in theembryo sac
    2. egg has a filiform apparatus
    3. there are numerous antipodal cells
    4. reduction division occurs in themegaspore mother cells

Ans.        (4) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cells                               [NCERT class 12, page 26,27]


  1. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily isbrought about by the agency of
    1. Bats
    2. Water
    3. insects or wind
    4. birds

Ans.     (3) insects or wind                                                                                                [NCERT class 12, page 29]


  1. The ovule of an angiosperm is technicallyequivalent to
    1. megaspore
    2. megasporangium
    3. megasporophyll
    4. megaspore mother cell

Ans.     (2) megasporangium                                               [NCERT class 12, page 25]


  1. Taylor conducted the experiments to provesemiconservative mode of chromosomereplication on
    1. coli
    2. Vinca rosea
    3. Vicia faba
    4. Drosophila melanogaster

Ans.     (3) Vicia faba                                                              [NCERT class 12, page 106]


  1. The mechanism that causes a gene to movefrom one linkage group to another is called
    1. crossing-over
    2. inversion
    3. duplication
    4. translocation

Ans.     (4) translocation


  1. The equivalent of a structural gene is
    1. recon
    2. muton
    3. cistron
    4. operon

Ans.     (3) Cistron                                                                    [NCERT class 12, page 109]


  1. A true breeding plant is
    1. always homozygous recessive in itsgenetic constitution
    2. one that is able to breed on its own
    3. produced due to cross-pollination amongunrelated plant
    4. near homozygous and produces offspringof its own kind

Ans.     (4) near homozygous and produces offspring of its own kind                   [NCERT class 12, page 70]


  1. Which of the following rRNAs acts asstructural RNA as well as ribozyme inbacteria?
    1. 8 S rRNA
    2. 5 S rRNA
    3. 18 S rRNA
    4. 23 S rRNA

Ans.     (4) 23 S rRNA                                                                              [NCERT class 12, page 115]


  1. Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designedfor
    1. ensuring anaerobic conditions in theculture vessel
    2. purification of product
    3. addition of preservatives to the product
    4. availability of oxygen throughout theprocess

Ans.     (4) availability of oxygen throughout the process                                      [NCERT class 12, page 204]


  1. A molecule that can act as a genetic materialmust fulfill the traits given below, except
    1. it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
    2. it should be able to express itself in theform of ‘Mendelian characters’
    3. it should be able to generate its replica
    4. it should be unstable structurally andchemically

Ans.     (4) it should be unstable structurally and chemically                         [NCERT class 12, page 103]


  1. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzestranscription on one strand of the DNAwhich is called the
    1. antistrand
    2. template strand
    3. coding strand
    4. alpha strand

Ans.     (2) template strand                                                  [NCERT class 12, page 108]


  1. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of
    1. more closely related individuals withinsame breed for 4-6 generations
    2. animals within same breed withouthaving common ancestors
    3. two different related species
    4. superior males and females of differentbreeds

Ans.     (3) two different related species                                         [NCERT class 12, page 168]


  1. which of the following is correctregardingAIDS causative agent HIV?
    1. HIV does not escape but attacks theacquired immune response.
    2. HIV is enveloped virus containing onemolecule of single-stranded RNA and onemolecule of reverse transcriptase.
    3. HIV is enveloped virus that contains twoidentical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse
    4. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.

Ans.     (3) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase                                                                


  1. Among the following edible fishes, whichone is a marine fish having rich source ofomega-3 fatty acids?
    1. Mackerel
    2. Mystus
    3. Mangur
    4. Mrigala

Ans.     (1) Mackerel                                                                  [NCERT class 12, page 169]


  1. Match Column—I with Column—II and select the correct option using the codesgiven below:

Column—I                              Column—II

  1. Citric acid                                (i)    Trichoderma
  2. Cyclosporin A                         (ii)   Clostridium
  3. Statins                                    (iii) Aspergillus
  4. Butyric acid                           (iv) Monascus

Codes :

a          b         c          d

  1. (iii)      (iv)     (i)        (ii)
  2. (iii)        (i)        (ii)       (iv)
  3. (iii)        (i)        (iv)     (ii)
  4. (i)          (iv)     (ii)       (iii)

Ans.     (3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)                                              [NCERT class 12, page 183]


  1. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodiesreceiving effluents from.
    1. sugar industry
    2. domestic sewage
    3. dairy industry
    4. petroleum industry

Ans.     (4) petroleum industry                                                          [NCERT class 12, page 276]


  1. The principle of competitive exclusion wasstated by
    1. Verhulst and Pearl
    2. Darwin
    3. F. Gause
    4. MacArthur

Ans.     (3) G. F. Gause                                                           [NCERT class 12, page 234]


  1. Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?
    1. Dachigam National Park, Jammu &Kashmir
    2. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
    3. Bandhavgarh National Park, MadhyaPradesh
    4. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, ArunachalPradesh

Ans.     (1) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir                                                  


  1. A lake which is rich in organic waste mayresult in
    1. mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
    2. increased population of aquaticorganisms due to minerals
    3. drying of the lake due to algal bloon
    4. increased population of fish due to lots ofnutrients

Ans.     (1) mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen                        [NCERT class 12, page 275]


  1. The highest DDT concentration in aquaticfood chain shall occur in
    1. eel
    2. phytoplankton
    3. seagull
    4. crab

Ans.     (3) seagull                                                                [NCERT class 12, page 276]


  1. Which-of the following sets of diseases iscaused by bacteria?
    1. Herpes and influenza
    2. Cholera and tetanus
    3. Typhoid and smallpox
    4. Tetanus and mumps

Ans.     (2) Cholera and tetanus                                               [NCERT class 11, page 26]



  1. Match Column—I with Column—II forhousefly classification and select the correctoption using the codes given below :

Column—I                      Column—II

  1. Family                   (i)   Diptera
  2. order                      (ii) Arthropoda
  3. Class                 (iii)  Muscidae
  4. Phylum                   (iv) Insecta

Codes :

a      b    c  d

  1.          (iv)    (ii)       (i)        (iii)
  2.         (iii)    (i)        (iv)      (ii)
  3.        (iii)     (ii)       (iv)      (i)
  4.       (iv)      (iii)      (ii)       (i)

Ans.     (2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii).                                       [NCERT class 11, page 11]


  1. Choose the correct
    1. All Pisces have gills covered by an
    2. All mammals are viviparous.
    3. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins.
    4. All reptiles have a three-chambered

Ans.     (3) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins                      [NCERT class 11, page 56-59]


  1. Study the four statements (A-D) given belowand select the two correct ones out of them:
    1. Definition of biological species was givenby Ernst Mayr.
    2. Photoperiod does not affect reproductionin plants.
    3. Binomial nomenclature system wasgiven by R. H.
    4. In unicellular organisms, reproduction issynonymous with growth.

The two correctstatements are

(1) A and B                              (2) B and C                              (3) C and D                      (4) A and D

Ans.     (4) A and D                                                            [NCERT class 11, page 2-7]


  1. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?
    1. Vas deferens
    2. Seminal vesicles
    3. Mushroom glands
    4. Testes

Ans.     (2) Seminal vesicles                                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 114]


  1. Smooth muscles are
    1. voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
    2. involuntary, fusiform, non-striated
    3. voluntry, multinucleate, cylindrical
    4. involuntary, cylindrical, striated

Ans.     (2) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated                    [NCERT class 11, page 105,303]



  1. Oxidative phosphorylation is
    1. formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrateoxidation
    2. formation of ATP by transfer ofphosphate group from a substrateto ADP
    3. oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
    4. addition of phosphate group to ATP

Ans.     (1) formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation                                                                        [NCERT class 11, page 233]


  1. Which of the following is the least likely to beinvolved in stabilizing the three-dimensionalfolding of most proteins?
    1. Ester bonds
    2. Hydrogen bonds
    3. Electrostatic interaction
    4. Hydrophobic interaction

Ans.     (1) Ester bonds                                                 [NCERT class 11, page 150]


  1. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?


  1. Exothermic reaction with energy A inabsence of enzyme and B in presence ofenzyme
  2. Endothermic reaction with energy A inpresence of enzyme and B in absence ofenzyme
  3. Exothermic reaction with energy A inpresence of enzyme and B in absence ofenzyme
  4. Endothermic reaction with energy A inabsence of enzyme and B in presence ofenzyme

Ans.     (3) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme                                                                                       [NCERT class 11, page 156]


  1. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork,which checkpoint should be predominantlyactivated?
    1. Both G2/M and M
    2. G1/S
    3. G2/M
    4. M

Ans.     (2) G1/S                                                                         [NCERT class 11, page 164]


  1. Match the stages of meiosis in Column—I to their characteristic features in Column—II and select the correct option using the codes given below:
  Column—I   Column—II
a. Pachytene (i) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b. Metaphase-I (ii) Terminalization of chiasmata
c. Diakinesis (iii) Crossing-over takes place
d. Zygotene (iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

a          b         c          d

  1. (iv) (iii)      (ii)       (i)
  2. (iii) (iv)     (ii)       (i)
  3. (i) (iv)     (ii)       (iii)
  4. (ii) (iv)     (iii)      (i)

Ans.     (2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)                               [NCERT class 11, page 168]


  1. Which hormones do stimulate theproduction of pancreatic juice andbicarbonate?
    1. Insulin and glucagon
    2. Angiotensin and epinephrine
    3. Gastrin and insulin
    4. Cholecystokinin and secretin

Ans.     (4) Cholecystokinin and secretin                             [NCERT class 11, page 338]


  1. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoliof the lungs is
    1. less than that of carbon dioxide
    2. equal to that in the blood
    3. more than that in the blood
    4. less than that in the blood

Ans.     (3) more than that in the blood                                        [NCERT class 11, page 272]


  1. Choose the correct
    1. Receptors do not produce graded
    2. Nociceptors respond to changes in
    3. Meissner’s corpuscles are thermo­receptors.
    4. Photoreceptors in the human eye aredepolarized during darkness and becomehyperpolarized in response to the light

Ans.     (4) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus.                          


  1. Graves’ disease is caused due to
    1. hypersecretion of adrenal gland
    2. hyposecretion of thyroid gland
    3. hypersecretion of thyroid gland
    4. hyposecretion of adrenal gland

Ans.     (3) hypersecretion of thyroid gland                                



  1. Name the ion responsible for unmasking ofactive sites for myosin for cross-bridgeactivity during muscle contraction.
    1. Potassium
    2. Calcium
    3. Magnesium
    4. Sodium

Ans.     (2) Calcium                                                     [NCERT class 11, page 307]


  1. Name the blood cells, whose reduction innumber can cause clotting disorder, leadingto excessive loss of blood from the
    1. Thrombocytes
    2. Erythrocytes
    3. Leucocytes
    4. Neutrophils

Ans.     (1) Thrombocyte                                                                   [NCERT class 11, page 280]


  1. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainlyon hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhancescellular glucose uptake and utilization.
    1. Gastrin
    2. Insulin
    3. Glucagon
    4. Secretin

Ans.     (2) Insulin                                                                   [NCERT class 11, page 336]


  1. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease ofskeletal system, may occur due to
    1. accumulation of uric acid leading toinflammation of joints
    2. immune disorder affecting neuro­muscular junction leading to fatigue
    3. high concentration of Ca++ and Na+
    4. decreased level of estrogen

Ans.     (4) decreased level of estrogen                                [NCERT class 11, page 312]


  1. Serum differs from blood in.
    1. lacking antibodies
    2. lacking globulins
    3. lacking albumins
    4. lacking clotting factors

Ans.     (4) lacking clotting factors                                          [NCERT class 11, page 279]


  1. Lungs do not collapse between breaths andsome air always remains in the lungs whichcan never be expelled because
    1. pressure in the lungs is higher than theatmospheric pressure.
    2. there is a negative pressure in the lungs
    3. there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
    4. there is a positive intrapleural pressure

Ans.     (3) there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls       


  1. The posterior pituitary gland is nota trueendocrine gland because
    1. it secretes enzymes
    2. it is provided with a duct
    3. only stores and releases hormones
    4. it is under the regulation of hypo­thalamus

Ans.     (3) only stores and releases hormones                           [NCERT class 11, page 332]


  1. The part of nephron involved in activereabsorption of sodium is
    1. descending limb of Henle’s loop
    2. distal convoluted tubule
    3. proximal convoluted tubule
    4. Bowman’s capsule

Ans.     (3) proximal convoluted tubule                     [NCERT class 11, page 294]


  1. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?
    1. Cu7
    2. LNG-20
    3. Multiload 375
    4. Lippes loop

Ans.     (2) LNG-20                                                                [NCERT class 12, page 60]


  1. Which of the following is incorrectregarding vasectomy?
    1. Irreversible sterility
    2. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
    3. No sperm occurs in epididymis
    4. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied.

Ans.     (3) No sperm occurs in epididymis                                   [NCERT class 12, page 62]


  1. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeresformed due to in vitro fertilization istransferred into
    1. cervix
    2. uterus
    3. fallopian tube
    4. fimbriae

Ans.     (2) Uterus                                                                 [NCERT class 12, page 64]


  1. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
    1. Efferent ductules →Rete testis → Vasdeferens → Epididymis
    2. Rete testis →Efferent ductules→ Epididymis → Vas deferens
    3. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferentductules → Vas deferens
    4. Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferentductules → Epididymis

Ans.     (2) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens             [NCERT class 12, page 43]


  1. Match Column—I with Column—II andselect the correct option using the codesgiven below :

ColumnI                              ColumnII

  1. Mons pubis (i)    Embryo formation
  2. Antrum (ii)   Sperm
  3. Trophectoderm (iii)  Female external genitalia
  4. Nebenkern (iv) Graafian follicle

Codes :

a          b        c          d

  1. (i) (iv)     (iii)      (ii)
  2. (iii) (iv)     (ii)       (i)
  3. (iii) (iv)     (i)        (ii)
  4. (iii) (i)        (iv)     (ii)

Ans.     (3) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)                                 [NCERT class 12, page 46,48]


  1. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogenprogesterone are produced by
    1. pituitary
    2. ovary
    3. placenta
    4. fallopian tube

Ans.     (3) placenta                                           [NCERT class 12, page 53]


  1. If a colour-blind man marries a woman whois homozygous for normal colour vision, the probability of their son being colour-blind is

(1) 1 (2)  0                                          (3)  5                              (4)  0.75

Ans.     (2) 0                                                                                   


  1. Genetic drift operates in
    1. slow reproductive population
    2. small isolated population
    3. large isolated population
    4. non-reproductive population

Ans.     (2) small isolated population                                               [NCERT class 12, page 137]


  1. In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequentof heterozygous individual is represented by-

(1) q2 (2) p2                                                              (3) 2pq                              (4) pq

Ans.     (3) 2pq                                                                               [NCERT class 12, page 137]


  1. The chronological order of human evolution/ from early to the recent is
    1. Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
    2. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
    3. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus
    4. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

Ans.     (3) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus  [NCERT class 12, page 140]


  1. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I- Formation of protobionts

II-Synthesis of organic monomers

III-Synthesis of organic polymers

IV-Formation of DNA-based genetic system

  1. II, III, IV, I
  2. I, II, III, IV
  3. I, III, II, IV
  4. ll, III, I, IV

Ans.     (4) ll, III, I, IV                                                                             [NCERT class 12, page 127]


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NEET Phase 2 2016 Solution Set XX


Solution of GujCET 2016 biology (code 11) 10-05-2016


Code 11


  1. Choose the correct option for statement P. Q and R in relevance to grass.

Statement P – Flower possess attractive colour and fragrance

Statement Q – Pollengrains are small, dry and light in weight

Statement R – Grass is air pollinated plant.

(A) Both P and Q are true. R is correct explanation of Q

(B) P is true and Q is false. R is correct explanation of P.

(C) P is false and Q is true. R is the correct explanation of Q

(D) Both P and Q are false. R has no relation with P and Q.

Ans.    (C) P is false and Q is true. R is the correct explanation of Q

  [Pg. 42, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Which is the correct option for the maintenance of the conc. of urine?

(A) Counter current produced in two limbs of Henle’s loop

(B) Counter current produced in two limbs of Vasa recta

(C) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop

(D) Counter current produced by Henle’s loop and Vasa recta

Ans.    (D) Counter current produced by Henle’s loop and Vasa recta

 [Pg. 94, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Function of ADH –

(A) Water absorption from the latero-posterior parts of the tubules.

(B) Facilitates water re-absorption from posterior parts of the tubules.

(C) Facilitates water absorption from the distal parts of the tubules.

(D) All the above

Ans.    (B) Facilitates water re-absorption from posterior parts of the tubules.

[Pg. 96, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. How many facial bones are present in pair?

(A) 5                              (B) 6                                   (C) 14                                 (D) 7

Ans.    (B) 6                                                                                                    [Pg. 105, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Prolong activation of striated muscle causes it to fatigue. What is the reason?

(A) Breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid in muscle during aerobic respiration.

(B) Breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid in muscle during anaerobic respiration

(C) Breakdown of lactic acid into glycogen during anaerobic respiration

(D) Produce ethanol in muscles

Ans.    (B) Breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid in muscle during anaerobic respiration

 [Pg. 105, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. In deep freshwater ponds, different layers of water with different temperatures are noticed. This is known as

(A) Thermal stratification                                       (B) Surface tension

(C) Water equilibrium                                            (D) Thermal equilibrium

Ans.    (A) Thermal stratification                                                                 [Pg. 113, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. What indicates ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the given figure?


(A) X-Potential natality, Y-Carrying capacity

(B) X-Environmental resistance, Y-Potential natality

(C) X-Carrying capacity, Y-Environmental resistance

(D) X-Environmental resistance, Y-Carrying capacity

Ans.    (D) X-Environmental resistance, Y-Carrying capacity

 [Pg. 117, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. Statement A: The flow of energy is unidirectional in Ecosystcm

Reason R: Consumers utilize the chemical energy as food and it is released into the atmosphere in the form of heat energy. It cannot be reused

(A) A and R both are true and R is the reason for A

(B) A and R both are false R is not the reason for A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

Ans.    (A) A and R both are true and R is the reason for A

   [Pg. 134, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. Where more than half of the species on the earth live?

(A) Tropical zone          (B) Temperate zone          (C) Dry tropical forests      (D) Moist tropical forest.

Ans.    (D) Moist tropical forest                                                            [Pg. 146, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Match the Column -1 and II. Choose the correct option.
Column -1 Column – II
P e – waste i) Waste clothing
Q Biodegradable waste ii) Dirt
R Inert waste iii) Green waste
S Composite waste iv) Irreparable waste

(A) (P – i) (Q – ii) (R – iv) (S – iii)                                (B) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)

(C) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – ii)                                (D) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – i) (S – ii)

Ans.    (B) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)                                      [Pg. 163,164, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. What are called micelles during absorption?

(A) small glycerol molecules                                  (B) small droplets of fatty acids

(C) very small fat droplets                                      (D) large fat molecules

Ans.    (B) small droplets of fatty acids                                                [Pg. 62, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. In_________, both dominant and recessive alleles lack their dominant and recessive relationships.

(A) Incomplete dominance                                     (B) Polygenic inheritance

(C) Multiple alleles                                                 (D) Co-dominance

Ans.    (D) Co-dominance                                                                      [Pg. 91, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Match the following. Choose the correct option.
Disease Symptoms
P – Gonorrhoea

Q – Trichomoniasis

R – Hepatitis B

S – Syphilis

i)      loss of appetites, pain upper right abdomen

ii)     white patches on the tongue or roof of buccal cavity

iii)   pain while passing urine

iv)   itching in and around vagina

(A) (P – i) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – iii)                                (B) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)

(C) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – ii)                                 (D) (P – iii) (Q – i) (R – ii) (S – iv)

Ans.    (C) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – ii)                                                 [Pg. 80, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Mendel’s law of segregation is also known as –

(A) Law of separation                                             (B) Law of dominance

(C) Law of purity of gametes                                  (D) Law of independent assortment

Ans.    (C) Law of purity of gametes                                                         [Pg. 88, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Transgenic animals mean

(A) Genes of these animals are introduced into other animals

(B) All the genes are from the same animal

(C) These animals are used as vector

(D) The introduction of exogenous DNA into the genome of an animal to create and maintain a stable heritable character.

Ans.    (D) The introduction of exogenous DNA into the genome of an animal to create and maintain a stable heritable character.                                                      [Pg. 174, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Which type of movement is observed in Drocera?

(A) Thigmotropism       (B) Hydrotropism              (C) Hydronasty                  (D) Thigmonasty

Ans.    (D) Thigmonasty                                                                                  [Pg. 62, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. In which phase of menstrual cycle progesterone level rises?

(A) Menstrual phase     (B) Proliferative phase      (C) Secretory phase           (D) Maturation phase

Ans.    (C) Secretory phase                                                                              [Pg. 71, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. in which of the following cry protein is synthesized?

(A) Simple cotton                                                    (B) Bt Cotton only

(C) bacillus thuringiensis only                                 (D) Bt cotton and Bacillus thuringiensis

Ans.    (D) Bt cotton and Bacillus thuringiensis                                  [Pg. 172, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. In Recombinant DNA technology which technique is used to separate fragments of DNA?

(A) Electroporation                                                 (B) Particle bombardment

(C) Agarose gel electrophoresis                             (D) Electrolysis

Ans.    (C) Agarose gel electrophoresis                                                  [Pg. 165, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Which of the following is not included into anthropoids?

(A) Gibbon                    (B) Chimpanzee                 (C) Lemur                          (D) Human

Ans.    (C) Lemur                                                                                       [Pg. 153, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. What is fused with maize for the manufacturing of genetically modified (G.M.) sugar in America?

(A) Brazzein                  (B) Basmati                       (C) Cane sugar                   (D) Zeamin

Ans.    (A) Brazzein                                                                                           [Pg. 177, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Identify P and Q in the figure and mention the process takes place.


(A) P – Diaphragm relax, Q – Thoracic cavity increases Inhalation

(B) P – Diaphragm contract, Q – Thoracic cavity decreases Exhalation

(C) P – Diaphragm relax, Q – Thoracic cavity reduces Exhalation

(D) P – Diaphragm contract, Q – Thoracic cavity increases Exhalation

Ans.    [BONUS] P–Diagram relax, Q–thoracic cavity increases exhalation.

[Pg. 70, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Mostly bread is in the semisweet taste due to

(A) Yeast                       (B) Remnants of alcohol   (C) Sugar                           (D) Acetic acid

Ans.    (B) Remnants of alcohol                                                       [Pg. 160, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. What is the time gap when atria and ventricle both undergoes diastole?

(A) 0.10 sec                   (B) 0.50 sec                       (C) 0.40 sec                       (D) 0.30 sec

Ans.    (C) 0.40 sec                                                                                   [Pg. 84, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Identify P, Q, R, S in the given figure


(A) P – Negative Regulation, Q – Inhibitor, R – Effector molecule, S – Positive Regulation

(B) P – Positive Regulation, Q – Effector molecule, R – Inhibitor, S – Negative Regulation

(C) P – Negative Regulation, Q – Inhibitor, R – Positive Regulation, S – Effector molecule

(D) P- Positive Regulation, Q – Effector Molecule, R – Negative Regulation, S – Inhibitor

Ans.    (C) P – Negative Regulation, Q – Inhibitor, R – Positive Regulation, S – Effector molecule                                                                                                         [Pg. 131, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Pathogenic which is responsible for the production of tumor in most of dicot plants.

(A) Retrovirus               (B) Bacteriophage             (C) Ti plasmid                    (D) Vector

Ans.    (C) Ti plasmid                                                                                 [Pg. 164, GSEB 4th Sem.]

  1. Which Genetic codon has dual functions?

(A) AGU                         (B) ACG                              (C) AUA                              (D) AUG

Ans.    (D) AUG                                                                                                [Pg. 124, GSEB 4th Sem.]

  1. Match the Column – I and II and choose the correct option.
Column -1 Column – II
P) Pepsin

Q) Erepsin

R) Carboxypeptidase

S) Renin

i)                 Casein → Paracasein

ii)               Polypeptides → Peptides and amino acids

iii)             Proteins → Proteoses + Peptones

iv)             Dipeptide → amino acids

(A) (P-iii) (Q-iv) (R-i) (S–ii)

(B) (P-iii) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – i)

(C) (P-iv) (Q-ii) (R–iii) (S–i)

(D) (P – i) (Q–iii) (R–iv) (S–ii)

Ans.    (B) (P-iii) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – i)                                                      [Pg. 60, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the given diagram


(A) X-Inter neuron, Y-Cell body of motor neuron

(B) X-Cell body of motor neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion

(C) X-Inter neuron, Y-Sensory neuron

(D) X-Inter neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion

Ans.    (B) X-Cell body of motor neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion

 [Pg. 9, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. Activities like running, talking and typing are controlled by

(A) Cerebellum             (B) pons                             (C) Medulla oblongata      (D) Mid brain

Ans.    (A) Cerebellum                                                                             [Pg. 8, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. How many endocrine glands are located in human brain?

(A) 03                            (B) 04                                 (C) 02                                 (D) 09

Ans.    (C) 02, Pituitary and Pineal glands                                        [Pg. 17, GSEB 4th Sem.]     

  1. What is the function of ‘P’ in the given figure?


(A) Regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism

(B) Regulate the mineral metabolism

(C) Development of female sexual characters

(D) Antiallergic and anti-inflamatory effects

Ans.    (B) Regulate the mineral metabolism                                              [Pg.19, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. 32 chromosomes are present in the green leaf of onion. When meiosis takes place to produce gametes after fertilization, how many chromosomes will be there in triploid nucleus?

(A) 32                            (B) 16                                 (C) 48                                 (D) 08

Ans.    (C) 48 [2n = 32; 3n = 48]                                                                       [Pg.31, GSEB 4th Sem.]

  1. “Pollengrains are protected by a mucilaginous covering and having specific gravity”. This is the characteristic of which type of pollination?

(A) Anemophily             (B) Entomophily                (C) Hydrophily                   (D) Zoophily

Ans.    (C) Hydrophily                                                                                      [Pg.43, GSEB 4th Sem.]


  1. The movement of water and minerals in xylem and the movement of phloem sap in phloem is respectively.

(A) Unidirectional, bidirectional                             (B) Bidirectional, bidirectional

(C) Bidirectional, unidirectional                             (D) Unidirectional, unidirectional

Ans.    (A) Unidirectional, bidirectional                                                     [Pg. 9, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. In the given figure, which’is the initial condition of plasmolysis?


(A) P                              (B) Q                                  (C) R                                  (D) S

Ans.    (B) Q                                                                                                          [Pg. 5, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Which of the following group belongs to macronutrient elements?

(A) B, N                (B) Ca, P                             (C) Ni, Na                           (D) K, Co

Ans.    (B) Ca,P                                                                                              [Pg. 16, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. What are the names of free living aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen fixation bacteria respectively?

(A) Rhizobium – Clostridium                                  (B) Azotobacter – Clostridium

(C) Azotobacter – Agrobacterium                          (D) Agrobacterium – Clostridium

Ans.    (B) Azotobacter – Clostridium                                                     [Pg. 24, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. Choose the correct option for the chloroplast of bundle sheath from the following.

(A) They show grana organization

(B) They do not show grana organization

(C) They do not possess thylakoid

(D) They possess thylakoid and grana organization

Ans.    (B) They do not show grana organization                                      [Pg. 35, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


  1. In glycolysis process during which reaction water molecule is released?

(A) 2 phosphoglyceric acid → phosphoenol pyruvic acid


(C) 1,3 biphosphoglyceric acid → phosphoglyceric acid

(D) phosphoenol pyruvic acid →pyruvic acid

Ans.     (A) 2 phosphoglyceric acid → phosphoenol pyruvic acid.    [Pg. 43, GSEB 3rd Sem.]


full biology paper with reference in pdf file is available here..

gujcet 2016

Solution of NEET 2016 biology (1st phase) 01-05-2016


NEET Phase-I Biology solution

Code – X

(Downloadble pdf file is given below)

  1. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
    1. Phosphodiester bond
    2. Covalentbond
    3. Disulphide bridges
    4. Hydrogen bonds

Ans.   (3) Disulphide bridges  [NCERT class 12, page 211]

  1. The coconut water from tender coconut represents :
    1. Fleshy mesocarp
    2. Free nuclear proembryo
    3. Free nuclear endosperm
    4. Endocarp

Ans.   (3) Free nuclear endosperm     [NCERT class 12, page 35]

  1. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
    1. Circular structure
    2. Transferable
    3. Single – stranded
    4. Independent replication

Ans.   (3) Single – stranded     [NCERT class 12, page 194]

  1. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
    1. River dolphin
    2. Blue whale
    3. Sea-horse
    4. Gangetic shark

Ans.   (1) River dolphin

  1. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
    1. GA3
    2. IAA
    3. Ethylene
    4. ABA

Ans.   (2) IAA

  1. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
    1. Alien species invasion
    2. Habitat loss and fragmentation
    3. Co – extinctions
    4. Over – exploitation

Ans.   (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation      [NCERT class 12, page 264]


  1. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(1) Intra uterine devices increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(2) Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
(3) Vasectomy prevents spermatogenesis
(4) Barrier methods prevent fertilization

Ans.   (3) Vasectomy – prevent spermatogenesis.     [NCERT class 12, page 59-62]


  1. In a testcross involving dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:
    1. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
    2. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
    3. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
    4. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.

Ans.    (2) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.           [NCERT class 12, page 83]


  1. A typical fat molecule is made up of:
    1. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
    2. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
    3. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
    4. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

Ans.    (1) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules          [NCERT class 11, page 145, Fig.9.1]


  1. Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option:

Column I          Column II

(a)  Dominance        (i) Many genes govern a single character

(b)  Codominance   (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

(c)  Pleiotropy         (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully

(d) Polygenic           (iv) A single gene influences inheritancemany characters


(a)        (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. (ii)       (iii)       (iv)       (i)
  2. (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)
  3. (iv)     (iii)         (i)         (ii)
  4. (ii)        (i)         (iv)       (iii)

Ans.    (1)         a-(ii)    b-(iii)     c-(iv)    d-(i)

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
    1. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers.
    2. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
    3. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
    4. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

Ans     (4) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.          [NCERT class 12, page 30,31,32]

  1. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
    1. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
    2. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
    3. Metamerically segmented body
    4. Schizocoelom as body cavity

Ans      (1) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development.

58.Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

  1. Chlorophylls
  2. Carotenoids
  3. Anthocyanins
  4. Xanthophylls

Ans    (3) Anthocyanins.

59.A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:

  1. Polyploidy
  2. Somaclonal variation
  3. Polyteny
  4. Aneuploidy

Ans.      (1) Polyploidy

60.A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?

  1. C4
  2. CAM
  3. Nitrogen fixer
  4. C3

Ans.     (1)     C4

61.In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:

  1. Graft rejection
  2. Auto-immune disease
  3. Active immunity
  4. Allergic response

Ans.     (2) Auto-immune disease                             [NCERT class 12, page 153]

62.Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

  1. Two photosystems operating simultaneously
  2. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
  3. Oxidative phosphorylation
  4. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

Ans.     (1) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

63.Select the correct statement:

  1. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
  2. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
  3. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
  4. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

Ans.     (2) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees                    [NCERT class 11, page 39]

64. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?

  1. Disappearance of nucleolus
  2. Chromosome movement
  3. Synapsis
  4. Spindle fibres

Ans.      (3) Synapsis                                             [NCERT class 11, page 168]

65. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

  1. more than that in the carotid.
  2. more than that in the pulmonary vein.
  3. less than that in the venae cavae.
  4. same as that in the aorta.

Ans.     (2) more than that in the pulmonary vein.


66. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?

  1. Wing of a Moth
  2. Hind limb of Rabbit
  3. Flipper of Whale
  4. Dorsal fin of a Shark

Ans.     (3) Flipper of whale.

67. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:

  • Budding
  • Somatic hybridization
  • Apomixis
  • Sporulation

Ans.      (3) Apomixis                                            [NCERT class 12, page 38]

68. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

  • Asthma
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Emphysema

Ans.      (4) Emphysema                                       [NCERT class 11, page 275]

69. Spindle fibres attach on to:

  1. Kinetochore of the chromosome
  2. Centromere of the chromosome
  3. Kinetosome of the chromosome
  4. Telomere of the chromosome

Ans.     (1) Kinetochore of the chromosome                      [NCERT class 11, page 165]

70. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. It is used for prenatal sex determination.
  2. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
  3. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
  4. It is usually done when a woman is between 14 -16 weeks pregnant.

Ans.   (3) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

71. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:

  1. phyllode
  2. Phylloclades
  3. Scales
  4. Cladodes

Ans.   (2) Phylloclade.

72. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:

  1. Lumen of thylakoids
  2. Inter membrane space
  3. Antennae complex
  4. Stroma

Ans.      (1) Lumen of thylakoids                         [NCERT class 11, page 213]

73. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

  1. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
  2. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
  3. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
  4. Biological names can be written in any language

Ans.     (4) Biological names can be written in any language                [NCERT class 11, page 7]

74. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:

  1. Leptotene
  2. Zygotene
  3. Diplotene
  4. Pachytene

Ans.     (4) Pachytene

75. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

  1. Harvested antibodies
  2. Gamma globulin
  3. Attenuated pathogens
  4. Activated pathogens

Ans.      (3) Attenuated pathogens

76. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

  1. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
  2. Bacillus subtilis
  3. Pseudomonas putida
  4. Thermus aquaticus

Ans.      (4) Thermus aquaticus                   [NCERT class 12, page 203]


  1. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
    1. X-linked recessive gene disorder
    2. Chromosomal disorder
    3. Dominant gene disorder
    4. Recessive gene disorder

Ans.      (1)     X-linked recessive gene disorder  [NCERT class 12, page 89]


  1. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:
    1. Pappus
    2. Vexillum
    3. Corona
    4. Carina

Ans.      (2)     vexillum                         [NCERT class 11, page 74]

  1. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
    1. Leaf
    2. Stem
    3. Root
    4. Flower

Ans.     (3) Root

  1. Which of the following statements is wrong foi viroids ?
    1. They are smaller than viruses
    2. They cause infections
    3. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
    4. They lack a protein coat

Ans.     (3)     Their RNA is of high molecular weight           [NCERT class 11, page 27]

81. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

  1. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
  2. Mutations inactivate the cell control.
  3. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
  4. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.

Ans.    (3)     Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

82. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

Tissue                                        Location

  1. Areolar tissue                                 Tendons
  2. Transitional epithelium              Tip of nose
  3. Cuboidal epithelium                     Lining of stomach
  4. Smooth muscle                              Wall of intestine

Ans.      (4)     Smooth muscle                     Wall of intestine             [NCERT class 11, page 101,103,105]

83. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?

  1. Insulin –              Glucagon
  2. Aldosterone –              Atrial Natriuretic Factor
  3. Relaxin –               Inhibin
  4. Parathormone –              Calcitonin

Ans.      (3)     Relaxin                        –               Inhibin

84. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

  1. Subsidiary cells
  2. Bulliformcells
  3. Lenticels
  4. Complementary cells

Ans.     (1)    Subsidiary cells                         [NCERT class 11, page 89]

85. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

  1. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.
  2. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.
  3. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
  4. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.

Ans.     (1)     the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.                                   [NCERT class 12, page 51]

86. Which one of the following is the starter codon?

  1. UGA
  2. UAA
  3. UAG
  4. AUG

Ans.      (4)     AUG                 [NCERT class 12, page 112]

87. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:

  1. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
  2. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
  3. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
  4. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.

Ans.     (3)     Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.                            [NCERT class 12, page 275]

88. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life:

(a)  The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

(b) autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?

  1. (b) is correct but (a) is false.
  2. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
  3. Both (a) and (b) are false.
  4. (a) is correct but (b) is false.

Ans.     (2)     Both (a) and (b) are correct.

  1. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
    1. Contour fanning
    2. Strip farming
    3. Shifting agriculture
    4. Ley farming

Ans.     (4)     Ley farming


  1. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:
    1. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
    2. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
    3. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
    4. More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.

Ans.     (2)     No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources. [NCERT class 12, page 235]

  1. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
(1) Viviparous Mammalia
(2) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
(3) 3 – chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
(4) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes

Ans.    (4)     Cartilaginous endoskeleton – Chondrichthyes

  1. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
    1. estrogen and inhibin
    2. progesterone only
    3. progesterone and inhibin
    4. estrogen and progesterone

Ans.   (4)   estrogen and progesterone

  1. Microtubules are the constituents of:
    1. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
    2. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
    3. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
    4. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

Ans.     (1)     Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia               [NCERT class 11, page 137,164]


  1. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

(a) semi-autonomous organelles.

(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.

             Which one of the following options is correct ?

  1. (b) is true but (a) is false.
  2. (a) is true but (b) is false.
  3. Both (a) and (b) are false.
  4. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

Ans.     (2)     (a) is true but (b) is false.


  1. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
    1. Opsin and Retinal
    2. Opsin and Retinol
    3. Transducin and Retinene
    4. Guanosine and Retinol

Ans.     (1)     Opsin and Retinal                  [NCERT class 11, page 324]

96. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:

  1. Protista
  2. Fungi
  3. Animalia
  4. Monera

Ans.     (1)     Protista                                       [NCERT class 11, page 20]

97. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:

  1. Thermoacidophiles
  2. Methanogens
  3. Eubacteria
  4. Halophiles

Ans.     (2)     Methanogens                          [NCERT class 11, page 19]

98. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’:

  1. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
  2. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
  3. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
  4. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.

Ans.     (1)     Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.

99. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:

  1. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
  2. Small animals have a lower O2
  3. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
  4. It is easier to carry a small body weight.

Ans.     (1)     Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.

100. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:

  1. 1:2:1:: Tall heterozygous: Tall homozygous : Dwarf
  2. 3:1:: Tall: Dwarf
  3. 3:1:: Dwarf: Tall
  4. 1:2:1:: Tall homozygous: Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

Ans.     (4)     1:2:1:: Tall homozygous: Tall heterozygous : Dwarf           [NCERT class 12, page 74]

101.Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:

  1. Ozone
  2. Ammonia
  3. Methane
  4. Nitrous oxide

Ans.     (1)     Ozone                                           [NCERT class 12, page 283]

102.Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

  1. Least genetic diversity
  2. Absence of weeds
  3. Ecological succession
  4. Absence of soil organisms

Ans.     (1)     Least genetic diversity

103.Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

  1. Solanaceae
  2. Fabaceae
  3. Poaceae
  4. Liliaceae

Ans.     (4)     Liliaceae                        [NCERT class 11, page 81]

104.In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

  1. Iron, copper, molybdenum
  2. Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
  3. Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
  4. Boron, zinc, manganese

Ans.     (Bonus)                                    [NCERT class 11, page 196]

105. Reduction in pH of blood will:

  1. reduce the blood supply to the brain.
  2. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
  3. release bicarbonate ions by the liver.
  4. reduce the rate of heart beat.

Ans.     (2)     decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen    [NCERT class 11, page 274]

106. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

  1. Fatigue
  2. Tetanus
  3. Tonus
  4. Spasm

Ans.     (2)     Tetanus

107. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

  1. Golden algae are also called desmids.
  2. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
  3. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
  4. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

Ans.     (2)     Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.                   [NCERT class 11, page 19, 20]

108. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

  1. Protease
  2. DNase I
  3. RNase
  4. Hind II

Ans.     (4)     Hind II                                             [NCERT class 12, page 195]

  1. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
  1. Liverworts
  2. Mosses
  3. Green algae
  4. Lichens

Ans.     (4)     Lichens                                          [NCERT class 12, page 251]

  1. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:
    1. Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.
    2. The above processes happen only during night time.
    3. One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
    4. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

Ans.     (1)     Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.

  1. Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
    1. coleorhiza
    2. coleoptile
    3. scutellum
    4. plumule

Ans.     (3) Scutellum                                           [NCERT class 11, page 77]

  1. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
    1. Ileocaecal valve
    2. Pyloric sphincter
    3. Sphincter of Oddi
    4. Semilunar valve

Ans.     (3) Sphincter of Oddi                                             [NCERT class 11, page 261]

  1. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
    1. parietal cells
    2. peptic cells
    3. acidic cells
    4. gastrin secreting cells

Ans.     (1) parietal cells                 [NCERT class 11, page 262]

  1. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
    1. Dorsal Aorta
    2. Hepatic Vein
    3. Hepatic Portal Vein
    4. Renal Vein

Ans.    (2)   Hepatic vein

115. The term ecosystem was coined by:

  1. A. G. Tansley
  2. Haeckel
  3. Warming
  4. P. Odum

Ans.     (1) A.G. Tansley

116. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?

  1. galactose
  2. lactose
  3. lactose and galactose
  4. glucose

Ans.     (2) lactose                                                [NCERT class 12, page 117]

117. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

  Microbe Product Application
(1) Monascus purpureus Statins lowering of blood cholesterol
(2) Streptococcus Streptokinase removal of clot from blood vessel
(3) Clostridium butylicum Lipase removal of oil stains
(4) Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin A immunosuppressive drug

Ans.   (3)   Clostridium butylicum – Lipase – removal of oil stains             [NCERT class 12, page 183]

118. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(l-N/K):

  1. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
  2. when N/ K equals zero.
  3. when death rate is greater than birth rate.
  4. when N/K is exactly one.

Ans.   (4)   when N/K is exactly one.                                             [NCERT class 12, page 231]

119. Which one of the following statements is not true ?

  1. Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
  2. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
  3. Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
  4. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.

Ans.   (4)   Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.             [NCERT class 12, page 21-23]

120. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:

  1. Insects
  2. Birds
  3. Water
  4. Wind

Ans.   (3)   Water                                             [NCERT class 11, page 35-36]

121. Which of the following is not a stem modification ?

  1. Thorns of citrus
  2. Tendrils of cucumber
  3. Flattened structures of Opuntia
  4. Pitcher of Nepenthes

Ans.   (4)   Pitcher of Nepenthes                                   [NCERT class 11, page 68,69,71]

122. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane ?

  1. Chloroplasts
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Nuclei
  4. Mitochondria

Ans.   (2)   Lysosomes                     [NCERT class 11, page 134,136,140]

123. Analogous structures are a result of:

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Shared ancestry
  3. Stabilizing selection
  4. Divergent evolution

Ans.   (1)   Convergent evolution                  [NCERT class 12, page 131]

124. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

  1. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
  2. Uracil is a pyrimidine.
  3. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
  4. Sucrose is a disaccharide.

Ans.   (3)   Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.              [NCERT class 11, page 197]

125. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:

  1. Connective
  2. Placenta
  3. Thalamus or petal
  4. Anther

Ans.   (3)   Thalamus or petal


  1. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
    1. Zinc finger analysis
    2. Restriction enzymes
    3. DNA-DNA hybridization
    4. Polymerase chain reaction

Ans.     (1)     Zinc finger analysis                       [NCERT class 12, page 121-122]


  1. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
    1. Breathing using lungs
    2. Viviparity
    3. Warm blooded nature
    4. Ossified endoskeleton

Ans.    (2)   Viviparity                                                       [NCERT class 11, page 59-60]


  1. Select the incorrect statement:
    1. LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
    2. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
    3. LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
    4. FSH stimulates theSertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.

Ans.    (2)   LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.

[NCERT class 11, page 332]


  1. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
    1. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
    2. Estrogen and Progesterone
    3. Cortisol and Cortisone
    4. Melatonin and Serotonin

Ans.    (4)   Melatonin and Serotonin


  1. Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
    1. 1970s
    2. 1980s
    3. 1990s
    4. 1960s

Ans.    (2)   1980s                                                                                 [NCERT class 12, page 258]


  1. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:
    1. Peptidoglycan
    2. Cellulose
    3. Hemicellulose
    4. Chitin

Ans.    (4)   chitin                                                                     [NCERT class 11, page 22]


  1. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:
    1. Polymer
    2. Polypeptide
    3. Okazaki fragment
    4. Polysome

Ans.    (4)   polysome                                       [NCERT class 11, page 129]


  1. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum – Arthropoda?
    1. Metameric segmentation
    2. Parapodia
    3. Jointed appendages
    4. Chitinous exoskeleton

Ans.      (2)     Parapodia                                                                      [NCERT class 11, page 52-53]


  1. Asthma may be attributed to:
    1. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
    2. inflammation of the trachea
    3. accumulation of fluid in the lungs
    4. bacterial infection of the lungs

Ans.      (1)     allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs                          [NCERT class 12, page 153]


  1. Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(b) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X – linked recessive gene disorder.

  1. (b) and (d) are correct.
  2. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
  3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
  4. (a) and (d) are correct.

Ans.      (3)     (a), (b) and (c) are correct.                                          [NCERT class 12, page 89-90]



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neet phase 1 solution

11th semester II GSEB Board paper 2016, Biology, Set – 18, Part B(SUBJECTIVE) 30-03-2016

solution of gseb 2016 sem 2 biology subjective paper

11th semester II GSEB Board paper 2016


Set – 18

Part B

Section A

(2 mark questions)


Qs.1       Give the difference between simple and compound leaf.


Simple leaf Compound leaf
·   If a single lamina occurs in a leaf or if lamina is incised and incisions are not reaching upto midrib than the leaf is known as simple leaf. ·     Lamina is incised and incisions reach upto midrib or tip of petiole, dividing leaf into many leaflets than the leaf is known as compound leaf.
·   Leaflets are absent ·     Leaflets are present.
·   Axillary bud is present in axil of leaf ·     Axillary bud is absent in axil of leaflets.



Qs.2       Explain modification of adventitious fibrous roots for storage of food.


When a fibrous root absorb food and become fleshy, it is called tuberous root.

Simple tuberous root – isolated adventitious root developing from the stem, become tuberous in shape. Theses roots are irregular in shape.

e.g., Sweet potato.

Fasciculated tuberous root – these tuberous roots are present in cluster.

e.g., Asparagus, Dahlia.




Qs.3       Describe the epiphytic roots.


Epiphytes – Epiphytes are the plants which live on branches of trees. They obtain only habitat from host. They do not obtain water, salts, or prepare food from host. They have no contact with soil.

Epiphytic roots – epiphytes have some adventitious roots which remain suspended in air. These roots are spongy, thick, long and greenish. They have a specialized tissue Velamen on their outer surface. The cells of this tissue absorb moisture from atmosphere. These roots are also called hygroscopic roots.



Qs.4     Describe steler region of Dicot stem.


All tissues on the innerside of the endodermis such as pericycle, vascular bundles and pith constitute the stele.

Pericycle                 –     few layers of thick-walled parenchyomatous cells, Next to endodermis. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes place in these cells.

Vascular bundles         –      Radial/alternate type. Exarch xylem. There are usually two to four xylem and phloem patches. Later, a cambium ring develops between the xylem and phloem.

Conjuctive tissue   –     The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called conjuctive tissue.

Pith                        –     The pith is small or inconspicuous.





Qs.4     Give the differences between heart wood and sap wood.


Heartwood (Duramen) Sapwood (alburnum)
·   Central part of secondary xylem(wood) ·   Peripheral part of secondary xylem(wood)
·   Dark brown or backish in colour ·   Lighter/yellow in colour
·   deposition of organic compounds like tannins, resins etc ·   No deposition of organic matter.
·   Hard and durable ·   soft
·   Provide mechanical support to stem ·   Conduction of water and minerals from roots to leaf.



Qs.5       Describe the tissue mainly present in the periosteum of the bones and perichondrium of Cartilage.


Tissue mainly present in the periosteum of the bones and perichondrium of Cartilage is White fibrous tissue.

White fibrous connective tissue –

  • It occurs in tendons, which arc elastic cords and connect muscles to the connective tissue sheath which surrounds the bone.
  • White fibres are arranged compactly and parallel in bundles.
  • This kind of tissue is found in places where great strength with limited flexibility is desirable.
  • They are also seen at the joint between cranium bones and make them immovable.




Qs.6     Describe sexual dimorphism in frog?


Sexual dimorphism – when both sexes male and female are morphologically different.


Male Female
·      Two vocal sacs arc present

·      Nuptial pad present in the index finger

·      The skin shows dark yellow colour during breeding season.

·      The abdominal region narrow and flat.


·     Vocal sacs are absent

·     Nuptial pad is absent

·     Skin colour is not changed.

·     The abdominal region is broad and buldged.






Qs.6     Explain circulatory system in Earthworm?


  • In earthworm closed type of circulatory system is found.
  • In circulatory system blood vessels, capillaries and heart arc included.
  • Due to closed circulatory system, blood is confined to the heart and blood vessels.
  • Due to contraction, blood circulates into one direction and smaller blood vessels supply blood to the gut, nerve cord and the body wall.
  • Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. Its function is to produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma.
  • Blood cells are of phagocytic type.
  • In earthworms there is absence of specialized breathing device. Respiratory exchange occurs through moist body surface and oxygen gets mixed into blood stream.




Qs.7     Explain granulocyte WBC.


granulocytes WBC have granules in their cytoplasm.

On the basis of staining characteristics of cytoplasm granules and shape of nucleus, granulocytes are of three types.

  • Neutrophils: The neutrophil whose granules stain weakly with both the acidic and basic stain. Neutrophils have many lobed nucleus.
  • Eosinophils (Acidophil): Their granules which stain by acidic dyes such as eosin. Eosinophils are large in size and with bilobed nucleus.
  • Basophils: The basophil he granules of which stain by basic dyes such as methylene blue. Basophils has *S’ shaped nucleus.




Qs.8       Explain excretory organs and process of excretion in cockroach?


Excretory organs of cockroach are Malpighian tubules.

They are present at the junction of midgut and hindgut. They are about 150 yellowish long, thin and hollow blind tubules. These blind tubules always float in the haemolymph. Each tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated cells. They absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out through the hindgut. Therefore, cockroach is a uricotelic animal. Excretory substances enter into the hindgut having large amount of water. This water is absorbed by the wall of hindgut.



Section B

(3 mark questions)

Qs.9       Explain the types of ovary on the basis of the position of the ovary?


Three kinds of flowers occur on the basis of the position of the ovary.

  1. Hypogynous flower – the thalamus becomes conical so that the ovary occupies the highest position. Such an ovary is called superior, e.g. Mustard. China rose and Datura.
  2. Perigynous flower – the thalamus becomes flat, disc-like. The ovary placed in the centre is semi-inferior. Other floral whorls are arranged on the rim of the thalamus, e.g. Rose, Caesalpinia.
  3. Epigynous flower – the thalamus envelops the ovary. Here, the ovary is inferior. The other three whorls are arranged above the ovary e.g. Sunflower, Cucumber.








Qs.9       What is composite fruit? Describe the type of composite fruits?


A composite fruit develops from all the flowers of a whole inflorescence forming one body at maturity. There are two types of multiple fruits namely sorosis and syconus.

  • Sorosis:
    • fruit develops from spike inflorescence.
    • The rachis and the flowers along with bracts unite together into fleshy compound fruit.
    • Flowers are usually sterile and seeds are rarely formed.
    • g., pineapple.
  • Syconus:
    • It is derived from a special type of inflorescence known as hypanthodium, which has a fleshy receptacle. It has large number of unisexual flowers. On ripening, the receptacle becomes fleshy and juicy and forms the edible portion.
    • g. Banyan fruit or Fig fruit.




Q.10       Write the floral characters of the family of Solanum nigrum.


Solanum nigrum is a member of Solanaceae family (Potato family).

It is classified as –

Class              –              Dicotyledons

Subclass       –              Gamopetalae

Series            –              Bicarpcllatac

Order            –              Polymoniales

Family           –              Solanaceae

Its floral characters are –

Inflorescence      :       Solitary cyme or monochasial, helicold cyme, apical or axillary.

Flower                    :       Complete, actinomorphic, bisexual, hypogynous.

Calyx                       :       Sepals five, gamosepalous, tubular, valvate, persistent.

Corolla                    :       Petals five, gamopetalous, valvate, variously shaped.

Androecium         :       Stamens five, epipetalous. introse.

Gynoecium          :     Bicarpcllary, Syncarpous, ovary superior, many ovules in each locule, Placentation axile.

Fruit                        :       Capsule or berry, seed endospermic.

Floral formula      :1.jpg




Q.11       Explain female reproductive system of cockroach?


  • Cockroaches arc unisexual animals and both sexes have well developed reproductive organs.
  • female reproductive system of cockroach consists of –
    • 2 ovaries
    • Oviduct
    • Vagina
    • Spermatheca
  • Ovaries – two ovaries are present laterally in the 2 to 6 abdominal segments. Each ovary is formed of a group of eight ovarian tubules or ovarioles containing a chain of developing ova.
  • Oviducts – carry ova into vagina.
  • Vagina – opens into genital chamber.
  • Spermatheca – A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment.


During copulation ovum come in the genital chamber, where they are fertilised by sperms. A dark brown coloured ootheca is formed by the group of fertilized eggs. Each ootheca has 14 to 16 eggs which give rise to nymphs.






Q.12       Explain pulmonary respiration and its steps in frog?


  • Respiration takes place through lungs in terrestrial habitat is called pulmonary respiration.
  • The system consists of respiratory tracts and lungs.
  • There are two respiratory tracts, each respiratory tract starts from an external nostril. It opens into the bucco-pharyngeal cavity. Bucco-pharyngcal cavity leads into a sac called laryngotracheal chamber through glottis. This laryngotracheal chamber opens into lungs.
  • The entire process of pulmonary respiration is completed in three steps: (1) Aspiration, (2) Inspiration and (3) Expiration.
    1. Aspiration: The entry of the gases into the buccopha­ryngeal cavity is called aspiration.
    2. Inspiration: The gases pass through the bucco-pharyngeal cavity to lungs is called inspiration, during this process diffusion of oxygen occurred.
    3. Expiration: The passage of impure air from the lungs to the outside of the body is called expiration.






Q.12       Explain the digestive gland, which secretes bile pigments in frog?


  • Bile pigment is secreted by Liver in frog.
  • Liver is the largest gland found in the frog.
  • It is a dark brown coloured gland located close to the heart and lungs.
  • Liver is divided into two lobes and the left is again sub divided so it appears trilobed.
  • A gall bladder lies between the right and left (lateral) lobes.
  • The liver secretes greenish liquid called bile which contains bile salts and bile pigments like bilirubin and biliverdin
  • Bile juice is stored in gall bladder.
  • The bile is transported to gall bladder by small hepatic ducts. Cystic ducts from gall bladder and hepatic ducts from liver combine to form a common bile duct. The bile duct passes through the pancreas and receives numerous pancreatic ducts. Now the bile duct is called heptopancreatic duct. It opens into the duodenum.
  • Bile has no digestive enzymes, it only emulsifies fat so that liver is not truly a digestive gland.



Q.13       Explain the structure of various components of complex tissue associated with transportation of water.


  • Complex tissue associated with transportation of water and mineral ions is xylem.
  • Xylem consists of tracheids, vessels, xylem parenchyma and xylem fibres.
  • Tracheids and vessels –
    • They are the main water transporting elements.
    • Tracheids and vessels have secondary wall thickening and lose their cytoplasm at maturity; hence they are dead yet functional.
    • Tracheids have pointed ends and overlap each other, whereas vessel elements have open end walls and are arranged end to end to form a larger unit called vessel.
    • Tracheids are found in pteridophytes and gymnosperms, while vessels are present in angiosperms.
  • Xylem parenchyma –
    • They are living cells and they store starch, lipid, tannin and crystalline substances.
  • Xylem fibres –
    • They have highly thickened walls and provide mechanical support.





Qs.14     Describe the simplest and most widely distributed connective tissue?


Areolar tissue is the simplest and the most widely distributed connective tissue.

It is also called loose connective tissue.

It is made up of fibres and cells.

Fibers – two types of fibres: White and yellow.

  • White fibres are wavy, unbranched and are arranged in bundles. They are made up of collagen protein.
  • Yellow fibres are few in number, more slender and are not arranged in bundles. They are single fibres branched and joined with one another to form a delicate network. They are made of elastin.

Cells –     cells present in ground substance are fibroblast, macrophages (histocytes) and mast cells.

  • Fibroblasts are the main cells of the tissue. They synthesize two kinds of proteins – collagen and elastin.
  • Phagocytic cell or histocyte are motile and ingest foreign particles, and is thus called macrophage. Thus these cells help in the defense of the body.
  • Mast cells are also irregular in shape and large in size. They contain three active substances: heparin, histamine and serotonin.




Section C

(4 mark questions)


Qs.15     Explain modification of root, stem, leaf for climbing with example?


(A) Modification of root for climbing –

Climbing or clinging roots –

Plants growing as twinners and climbers possess weak stems so they possess modified structures for climbing.

In Pothos,long branched or unbranched, brown adventitious roots develop from nodes and internodes of the stem. They are called climbing or clingingroots. They secrete a sticky material which helps them to stick to the support, and helps them in climbing.

(B) Modification of stem for climbing –

Stem tendrils –

Examples are Passion flower, Cucurbita, Bittergourd, etc.

In these plants, the axillary buds modified into thin, long, threadlike structures. These are called Stem tendrils.

They twine around the support and help the plant in climbing.

(C) Modification of leaf for climbing –

Leaf tendril –

Leaf apex – Gloriosa.

Stipules – Smilax

Terminal leaflets of a compound leaf – Pea

Leaf hook –

In Bignonia, three terminal leaflets become hook-like or clawed.



Qs.16     Explain male reproductive system of frog with diagram?


Frog is a unisexual animal.

male reproductive system

Male reproductive organs include a pair of testes, vasa efferentia, Bidder’s canal and urinogenital ducts.

Testis                            –          Each testis is located at the antero-lateral part of the kidney. It is oval-shaped, small and yellowish in colour. It remains connected to the kidney by mesorchium. It produce sperms.

Vasa efferentia         –           The sperms produce in testes are transported to Vasa efferentia.

Bidder’s canal            –           it connects vasa efferentia to urinogenital duct.

urinogenital ducts    –           they carry sperms to cloaca.






Qs.16     Explain voluntary nervous system and draw the diagram of dorsal view of brain of frog?


Nervous system of frog

  • Nervous system of frog is located on the dorsal side of the body.


  • It is divided into two sections. (1) Voluntary nervous system and (2) Involuntary nervous system.


  • The regulation of voluntary nervous system is under the willingness of animals.
  • Voluntary nervous system divides into central and peripheral nervous system.
  • Central nervous system –
    • It consists of brain and a spinal cord.
    • Brain is situated in the head and protected within the
    • Brain is divided into three regions : fore brain, mid brain and hind brain.
      • Fore brain includes a pair of olfactory lobes, a pair of cerebral hemispheres and diencephalons.
      • On the ventral side of diencephalons one hollow, bilobed and pouch like part is located, which is known as infundibulum. Pituitary gland is attached to the broad posterior end of it. It is master endocrine gland controlling various physiological activities, animal growth and development.
      • The mid brain includes of two large oval and obliquely arranged optic lobes.
      • Hind brain is composed of cerebellum and medulla oblongata. The medulla oblongata continues as the spinal cord in the vertebral column.
    • Spinal cord presentsin the trunk region and terminates in the hollow cavity of urostyle of a vetebral column as a filum terminale.
  • Peripheral nervous system –
    • The peripheral nervous system is formed by cranial nerves and spinal nerves arising from brain and spinal cord respectively.
    • In frog 10 pairs of cranial nerves from brain and 9 pairsof spinal nerves from spinal cord arise.




Qs. 17    Describe the structure of adult bone?


  • Bone is a specialized connective tissue.
  • Some of the features of this tissue are as follows :
    • It is highly vascular, mineralized, hard and rigid.
    • It is resilient
    • It has a regenerating capacity
    • It has a canalicular system.
  • The mature bone is composed of two kinds of tissues: (a) the compact bone and (b) spongy.
  • The ground substance or the matrix iscomposed of protein called osseinand various inorganic salts of lime, likecalcium phosphate, calcium carbonate, magnesium phosphate and calcium fluorides.
  • In adult bone flat irregular spaces called lacuna occurs in the solid matrix and each lacuna contains a flat bone cell or osteocyte.
  • An osteocyte has an irregular shape and long cytoplasmic process. These processes extendedinto minute canals radiating from each lacuna.
  • The lacunae are in communication with oneanother by fine canalicules.
  • In a long dried bone of frog, large number of lamellae are present in a ground substance.
  • In the center there is a narrow cavity of the bone. It contains a tissue known as the bone marrow which is yellow in colour. It is composed of adipose tissue, blood vessels, etc.
  • The bone increases in thickness by the addition of successive layers to the outside as well as to the innerside.
  • In mammalian bones many column like structures are seen called Haversian system. In each Haversian system, several concentric layers (lamellae) of bony matrix encircle a longitudinal central canal (Haversian canal). This canal carries blood vessels and
  • Spongy bones are found in vertebrae, ribs, skull, etc. It contains red bone marrow, which is the seat for formation of erythrocytes and granulocytes.




Qs. 18    Explain the structure of monocot seed with the help of diagram?

Ans :

Maize is a typical example of monocotyledon seed (endospermic seed).


  • Maize grain is flat, yellow, narrow at one end and broad at the other end.
  • If the seed is cut longitudinally into two parts and the cut face stained with iodine, the endosperm part will appear deep blue because of starch and the embryo part will appear yellowish.


  • Structure of monocot seed –


  1. Hull – it is the outermost, tough covering formed through fusion of pericarp and seed coat.
  2. Aleurone layer – It is present under the hull. It is made up of big square or rectangular cells. Grains of proteins are stored in these cells.
  3. Cotyledon – it is single, thin and shield-shaped and present in the embryonic region. It is also called scutellum.  The outer layer of scutellum which remains in contact with endosperm is called epithelial layer.
  1. Endosperm – it is large part which stores food mainly in the form of starch.
  2. Embryo – it is present and attached at the narrow end of scutellum.Its one end form plumule, which gives rise to shoot system and its protective covering is called coleoptile.At the other end of embyoradicle is present, which gives rise to root system and its protective covering is called coleorhiza.



printable pdf of solution is given here.

11th semester II GSEB Board paper 2016 part b solution

11th semester II GSEB Board paper 2016, Biology Solution , Set – 18, PART A(OBJECTIVE) 30-03-2016

Objective paper is solved in this post…look in next post for subjective solution.

11th semester II GSEB Board paper 2016


Set – 18

 Part A

  1. The thick filaments are made up of which protein?

(A)  Myosin                    (B)  Actin                        (C)  Troponin              (D)  Tropomyosin     

Ans: (A) Myosin


  1. The cartilage present in the pubis of frogs, in suprascapula and at head of humerus and femur.

(A)  White fibro cartilage.                                        (B)  Calcified cartilage.

(C)  Yellow elastic cartilage.                                   (D)  Hyaline cartilage.

Ans: (B) Calcified cartilage. 

  1. Match the following and choose the correct option.


Column-I Column-II
(P) Endomysium

(Q) Synapse

(R) Nissl’s granules

(S) Schwann’s cell

(i)  The physical gap between the axon nerve ending and dendrites nerve endings.

(ii) The spaces between the cardiac muscle cells.

(iii) Neurilemma sheath made up of single layer of flat cells.

(iv) Large numbers of dark particles present in cyton.

(A) (P–ii), (Q–i), (R–iii), (S–iv)

(B) (P–iv), (Q–ii), (R–iii), (S–i)

(C) (P–ii), (Q–i), (R–iv), (S–iii)

(D) (P–iii), (Q–iv), (R–ii), (S–i)

Ans: (C) (P–ii), (Q–i), (R–iv), (S–iii)       

  1. Pseudo-stratified epithelium is seen in?

(A)  Pancreatic duct                                               (B)  Oesophagus

(C)  Inner lining of trachea                                 (D)  Uriniferous tubule 

Ans: (C) Inner lining of trachea


  1. The cells are irregular in shape and contain three active substances – Heparin, histamine and Serotonin, are called as……

(A)  Mast cells                (B)  Phagocytic cells       (C) Fibroblast          (D) Histocytes 

Ans: (A) Mast cells       


  1. ……type of placentation has false septum in ovary.

(A)    Axile                       (B)    Marginal                 (C)    Free central                (D) Parietal 

Ans: (D) Parietal 

  1. In what fashion, new flowers are arranged in Raceme inflorescence?

(A)  None of the given three potions                   (B)  Centripetal
(C) Acropetal                                                               (D) Acropetal and Centripetal.

Ans: (C) Acropetal       


  1. Spathe is found in which of the following inflorescence?

(A)  Spike                       (B)  Umbel                      (C)  Catkin                  (D)  Spadix 

Ans: (D) Spadix       


  1. The smallest petals in vexillary aesfciyatiori are known as……
    (A) Standard and Alae.                                         (B)  Standard

(C)  Alae                                                                 (D)  Keel 

Ans: (D) Keel       


  1. Xylem parenchyma are living cells and they store which substances ?

(A) Starch, resin, lipid and crystalline substances.

(B)   Starch, resin, mucilage and latex.

(C)  Starch, lipid, tannin and crystalline substances.

(D)  Starch, lipid, latex and crystalline substances. 

Ans: (C) Starch, lipid, tannin and crystalline substances. 


  1. Statment X – The vascular bundles, in which, xylem and phloem occur together, are called conjoint vascular bundles

Statement Y – These vascular bundles are of three types.

(A)  Statement X and Statement Y are wrong.

(B)  Statement X and Y both are correct.

(C)  Statement X is correct but Y is wrong.

(D)  Statement X is wrong but Y is correct. 

Ans: (B) Statement X and Y both are correct. 

  1. What does ‘X’ and ‘Y’ indicate in the given figure?


(A)  Muscle and bone.                                             (B)  Ligament and tendon

(C)  Ligament and bone                                           (D)  Ligament and muscle.

 Ans: (B) Ligament and tendon


  1. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I (Cells) Column-II (Position)
(P) Guard cells

(Q) Motor cells

(R) Resin duct

(S) Casparian strips

(i)  In endodermis of dicot root.

(ii)  In cortex of dicot stem.

(iii) In upper epidermis of monocot leaf

(iv) In epidermis of aerial part’s surrounding stomata.

(A)  (P-iii), (Q-iv), (R-i), (S-i)

(B)  (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-i)

(C)  (P-ii), (Q-iii), (R-i), (S-iv)

(D)  (P-iv), (Q-ii), (R-iii), (S-i)

Ans: (B) (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-i)


  1. Malpighian body is made up of…….

(A)  Bowman’s capsule arid efferent arteriole.

(B)  Bowman’s capsule and afferent arteriole.

(C) Bowman’s capsule and capillary network.

(D) Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus.

Ans: (D)Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus


  1. The meristem located between permanent tissues in grasses, is known as …….

(A)  Cambium                                                        (B)  Apical meristem

(C)  Intercalary meristem                                  (D) Lateral meristem

Ans: (C) Intercalary meristem


  1. Which one of the following is not suitable according to the structure?
    (A) Enterokinase            (B) Enterocrinin         (C) Secretin                (D) Cholecystokinin

Ans: (A) Enterokinase   


  1. In Frog, deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body is collected in heart by….

(A)  Left auricle             (B)  Ventricle                  (C)   Aortic trunk     (D) Sinus venosus

Ans: (D) Sinus venosus


  1. By which of the following arteries, the dorsal aorta is formed?

(A)  One carotid arch and one systemic arch.      (B)  Two carotid arch.

(C)  Two systemic arch                                          (D)   Two pulmocutaneous arch

Ans: (C) Two systemic arch


  1. Statement A – Liver is not considered as true digestive gland.
    Reason R – It only emulsifies fat.

(A)  Statement A is false and R is true.

(B)  Statement A and R both are true, R is the explanation of A.

(C)  Statement A and R both are true; R is not correct explanation of A.

(D)  Statement A is true and R is false.

Ans: (B) Statement A and R both are true, R is the explanation of A.


  1. Which enzyme is present in gastric juice?
    (A) Lipase                              (B)  Trypsin                     (C)  Amylase               (D)  Pepsinogen 

Ans: (D) Pepsinogen


  1. Of the following given statements, which is correct one?

      (X)       Frog skin protects the body against foreign bodies and algae.

      (Y)       The stratum compactum is made by dense, connective tissue, Smooth muscle fibres, nerves and Blood vessels.

      (Z)       The stratum spongiosum is made by dense connective tissue, smooth muscle fibres and mucous glands.

      (A)   Y                            (B)    X and Z                             (C)    Y and X               (D) Z 

Ans: (A) Y 


  1. If ‘P’ indicated in the diagram is removed, the transport of which juice will stop?


(A)       Intestinal juice    (B)    Gastric juice                    (C)  Pancreatic juice    (D)  Bile juice 

Ans: (D) Bile juice


  1. In Sorosis, which part unite together to make fruits?

(A)       Petals and Persistant hairy calyx.

(B)          Bracts and Ovary

(C)       Bracts and Petals

(D)          Rachis and Bracts. 

Ans: (D) Rachis and Bracts.


  1. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(P) Perianth

(Q) Hypogynbus flower

(R) Epigynous flower

(S) Perigynous flower

(i) Rose

(ii) Sunflower

(iii) Datura

(iv) Bougainvillea

(A)       (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-i)                            (B)  (P-iii), (Q-iv), (R-i), (S-ii)

(C)       (P-iii), (Q-ii), (R-iv), (S-i)                            (D)  (P-iv), (Q-ii), (R-iii), (S-i)

Ans: (A) (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-i)


  1. In which fruit, Pericarp and seed coat are free from one another?
    (A) Achene           (B)    Caryopsis                        (C)  Nut                      (D) Samara

Ans: (A) Achene


  1. Where the true fruit is situated in apple?

(A)       Above the thalamus.                                   (B)  True fruit is not formed.

(C)       Outside the thalamus.                                  (D)  Inside the thalamus.

Ans: (D) Inside the thalamus.


  1. Give the correct labeling of a, b and c shown in the given figure



(A)       a – Lenticel, b – Secondary cork, c – Cork cambium.

(B)       a – Lenticel, b – Cork cambium, c – Secondary cork

(C)       a – Cork cambium, b – Cork, c – Cambium

(D)          a – Lenticel, b – Cork, c – Secondary cork 

Ans: (B) a – Lenticel, b – Cork cambium, c – Secondary cork


  1. Which structure is formed due to joining of intra–fascicular and inter–fascicular cambium?

      (A)       Casparian strips                                         (B)  Annual rings

      (C)       Vascular cambium                            (D)  Cambium ring.

Ans: (D) Cambium ring


  1. In the vascular bundle of which plant organ, phloem parenchyma is absent and water containing lysigenous cavities are present?

(A)       Monocot stem                                 (B)  Monocot root
(C)       Dicot stem                                        (D)  Dicot root

Ans: (A) Monocot stem


  1. The tissue which is absent in monocots and underground parts of the plants….

(A)       Xylem                (B)  Parenchyma         (C) Sclerenchyma   (D) Collenchyma 

Ans: (D) Collenchyma


  1. The frog undergoes dormant life during winter season is known as……

(A)       All the given three options.                   (B)  Aestivation
(C)       Hibernation                                                 (D)  Aestivation and hibernation. 

Ans: (C) Hibernation        


  1. Which figure shows labium in the following figures?


(B)     1.jpg

(C) 1

(D)   1

Ans: (C)1


  1. The nervous system of Pheritima posthuma is located on which side?
        (A) Both Dorsal and Ventral side                 (B) Dorsal

      (C) Ventral                                                             (D) Lateral 

Ans: (C) Ventral


  1. In Cockroach walking legs, the femur is located between?
    (A) Tibia and tarsus                                         (B)  Coxa and trochanter

(C)       Trochanter and tibia                         (D)  Trochanter and tarsus. 

Ans: (C) Trochanter and tibia                       


  1. The cells of which region of root differentiates and form tissue

(A)       Region of elongation                                 (B)  Meristematic region

(C)       Region of maturation                                 (D)  Root cap.

Ans: (C) Region of maturation


  1. Which type of phyllotaxy is observed in Guava?

(A)       Alternate                                                     (B)  Whorled

(C)        Opposite decussate                                    (D)  Opposite superimposed. 

Ans: (D) Opposite superimposed.       


  1. In Bignonia, hook like or clawed structure is the modification of.

(A)       Petiole                (B)  Stipule                (C) Leaflets                (D)  Leaf 

Ans: (C) Leaflets


  1. Which part of the plant is modified in runner for vegetative propagation?

(A)       Internode       (B) Auxiliary bud          (C)  Apical bud          (D)  Floral bud 

Ans: (A) Internode


  1. Which is not suitable for the sense organs of Cockroach?

(A)       Anal circus         (B)  Antennae                  (C)  Anal styles      (D)  Maxillary palp. 

Ans: (C) Anal styles


  1. Calciferous glands are found in which segment of earthworm

(A)       1st to 7th segment                                        (B)         5th to 7th segment.
(C)       5th to 9|h segment                                             (D)         9th to l4th segment 

Ans: (D) 9th to l4th segment


  1. Which animal is used as bait in Fishing?

(A)     Earthworm       (B)  Butterfly                  (C)  Cockroach           (D) Salamander

Ans: (A) Earthworm      


  1. In the given diagram, what indicates typhlosole?


(A)       Y                        (B)  X

(C)       Z                         (D)  W 

Ans: (A) Y / (C) Z (Both answers are right, but according to labelling in textbook, Y might be the right one)


  1. Which modification is observed in Pea for special functions?
    (A) For all the special functions.                     (B) Symbiosis

(C)       Photosynthesis.                                          (D)  Climbing.

Ans: (A) For all the special functions.


  1. Match the following and choose the correct option.
Column-I Column-II
(P)  Sheathing leaf base

(Q) Tunicated bulb

(R)  Foliaceous stipule

(S)  Phylloclade

(i)  Pea

(ii)  Opuntia

(iii)  Onion

(iv)  Maize

(A)       (P-i), (Q-iii), (R-iv), (S-ii)

(B)       (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-ii), (S-i)

(C)       (P-iv), (Q-ii), (R-iii), (S-i)

(D)       (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-i), (S-ii) 

Ans: (D) (P-iv), (Q-iii), (R-i), (S-ii)


  1. Corm is condensed form of ………. It is a food storing structure made up of only one……

(A)       Tuber, Internode                                        (B)  Tuber, Node.

(C)        Rhizome, Node.                                         (D)  Rhizome, Internode. 

Ans: (D) Rhizome, Internode.


  1. Breathing roots are considered as…….

(A)       Fibrous, positive geotropic, positive phototropic.

(B)       Normal root, negatively geotropic, positive phototropic.

(C)       Normal root, positive geotropic, positive phototropic

(D)       Fibrous, negatively geotropic, positive phototropic. 

Ans: (B) Normal root, negatively geotropic, positive phototropic.


  1. Which grains are stored in aleurone layer of monocot seed?

(A)       Glycogen            (B)  Starch                 (C)  Lipid                    (D) Protein 

Ans: (D) Protein


  1. From where the embryo get nourishment in non-endospermic seed during seed germination?

(A)          From Cotyledons                                       (B)   From Endosperm

(C)        From Sunlight                                              (D) From Micropyle. 

Ans: (A)      From Cotyledons    


  1. The bodywall of the earthworm is made up of……

(A)       Cuticle – scaly layer – longitudinal muscles

(B)       Cuticle – circular muscles – parietal layer

(C)       Cuticle – skeletal muscles – scaly layer.

(D)       Cuticle – scaly layer – parietal layer. 

Ans: (B) Cuticle – circular muscles – parietal layer


  1. Seed is attached to the fruit by which of the following structure?

(A)       Cotyledons         (B)  Seed coat                 (C)   Seed pore             (D)           Hilum 

Ans: (D) Hilum



printable pdf file is also available in link, given below…

11th semester II GSEB Board paper 2016