DQS – 06

DQS – 06

  1. Read the given statements about algae and select the correct option.

(i) Plant body is thalloid.

(ii) Largely aquatic.

(iii) Reproduction by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.

(iv) Chlamydomonas, Volvox and Ulothrix are the multicellular algae.

(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are true

(b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are true

(c) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are true

(d) All statements are true.

 

  1. _______and ______are unicellular algae, rich in proteins, which are used as food supplements even by space travellers,

(a) Chlorella, Spirullna                                           (b) Gelidium, Gracilaria

(c) Porphyra, Spirogyra                                         (d) Laminaria, Spirogyra

 

  1. Green algae usually have a rigid cell wall made of an inner layer of____and an outer layer of________.

(a) cellulose, cellulose                                           (b) pectose, pectose

(c) pectose, cellulose                                            (d) cellulose, pectose

 

  1. Which of the following pigments are found in brown algae?

(a) Chl a, Chl c

(b) Chl a, Chl d

(c) Chl a, Chl c and fucoxanthin

(d) Chl a, phycoerythrin

  1. Which one of the following cannot fix nitrogen?

(a) Nostoc                    (b) Azotobacter                 (c) Spirogyra                (d) Anabaena

  1. Match Column-I with Column-ll and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I                                             Column-ll

A. Spirogyra                                     (i) Unicellular

B.Chlamydomonas                      (ii) Filamentous

C. Volvox                                          (iii) Colonial form

D. Some giant marine forms       (iv) Kelps

(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)                                   (b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)                                   (d) A-(iii), B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iv)

  1. Plant classification as proposed by Carolus Linnaeus was artificial because it was based on

(a) only a few morphological characters

(b) all the possible characters

(c) anatomical characters which are adaptive in nature

(d) physiological and morphological characters.

  1. Select the option that correctly identifies A, B and C in the given figure of female thallus of Marchantia.

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(a) A – Antheridiophore, B – Gemma cup, C – Rhizoids

(b) A – Antheridiophore, B – Rhizoids, C – Gemma cup

(c) A – Archegoniophore, B – Gemma cup, C – Rhizoids

(d) A – Archegoniophore, B – Rhizoids, C – Gemma cup

  1. Resemblances between algae and bryophytes include

(a) presence of root-like, stem-like and leaf-like structures

(b) thallus-like plant body, lack of vascular tissue, autotrophic nutrition

(c) thallus-like plant body, presence of vascular tissue, autotrophic nutrition

(d) presence of roots, heterotrophic nutrition.

  1. In Funaria, the haploid structure is

       (a) protonema             (b) capsule

(c) columella               (d) seta.

 

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CH 8 – CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

  • Cell   is —  Basic unit of life

—  Fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.

  • Cytology – study of cell and cellular structures.
  • Types of organisms –

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  • All unicellular organisms are capable of
    • Independent existence.
    • Performing the essential functions of life.

Anything less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living. Hence, cell is the fundamental structural and functional unit of all living organisms.

  • Some important scientists –
Name of scientist Their work
Robert hooke Discovered cell
Anton von Leeuwenhoek first saw and described a live cell
Robert Brown Discovered nucleus
Schleiden (German botanist), Schwann (British Zoologist) Formulated Cell Theory
  • Robert hooke first time describe about cell in his book ‘Micrographia’. He actually saw cell wall of dead cells not cell itself.

 

  • CELL THEORY

    • Formulated by Schleiden and Schwann.
    • Modified by Rudolf Virchow – he explained that new cells develop from pre existing cells by cell division (Omnis cellula-e cellula).
    • Exception of cell theory – virus, viriods,
  1. All living organisms are composed of cells and products of cells.
  2. Cell is structural unit of life.
  • All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

 

  • CELL SIZE AND SHAPE

    • Smallest cell – mycoplasmas (PPLO – Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms)
    • Largest cell – egg of an ostrich.
    • Smallest cell in human body – Red Blood Cell.
    • Largest cell in human body – Ovum.
    • Longest cell in human body – Nerve Cell.

Even shape of cells may vary with the functions they perform.

 

  • TYPES OF CELL

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PROKARYOTIC CELL

  • Represented by Blue Green Algae, mycoplasmas, bacteria etc.

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  • Cell wall
    • Determine shape of cell.
    • Provide strong, structural support
    • Prevent bacteria from bursting or collapsing

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  • Plasma membrane
    • Semipermeable
    • Structurally similar to that of eukaryotes.
  • Mesosomes
    • Formed by extension of plasma membrane into cell.
    • In the form of vesicles, tubules and lamella.
    • Help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells.
    • Also help in respiration, secretion processes, to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane and enzymatic content.
  • Chromatophores
    • Membranous extensions into cytoplasm.
    • Contain pigments.
    • In cyanobacteria.
  • Flagella
    • Present in motile cells.
    • Thin filamentous extensions from their cell wall.
    • Composed of three parts – filament, hook and basal body.
  • Pili and Fimbriae
    • Pili are elongated tubular structure while fimbriae are small bristle like fibres.
    • Help in attachment of bacteria.
  • Ribosomes
    • Associated with the plasma membrane of the cell.
    • Made of two subunits – 50S and 30S units which when present together form 70S.

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  • Site of protein synthesis.
  • Ribosome of a polysome translate the mRNA into protein.

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  • Inclusion bodies
    • For storage of reserve material in prokaryotic cells.
    • These are not bounded by any membrane system and lie free in the cytoplasm.
    • g., phosphate granules, cyanophycean granules and glycogen granules.
    • Gas vacuoles are found in blue green and purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.

 

EUKARYOTIC CELLS

  • Include all the protists, plants, animals and fungi.
  • Extensive compartmentalisation of cytoplasm through the presence of membrane bound organelles present.
  • possess an organised nucleus with a nuclear envelope.
  • genetic material is organised into chromosomes.

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  • Cell wall
    • non-living, rigid structure
    • forms an outer covering for the plasma membrane of fungi and plants.
    • gives shape to the cell and protects the cell from mechanical damage and infection.
    • it also helps in cell-to-cell interaction and provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules.

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  • Layers of cell wall
  1. Middle lamella
  • Outermost
  • Made up of mainly calcium pectate.
  • Holds or glues the different neighbouring cell together.
  1. Primary wall
    • Capable of growth.
    • Present in young cell.
    • Gradually diminishes as cell matures.
    • Madeup of cellulose, hemicelluloses.
    • Present in meristem, pith, cortex etc.
  2. Secondary wall
    • Innermost layer.
    • Lignified (in sclerenchyma, vesels, tracheids), suberinised (casparian strips, endodermis)
    • Suberin, lignin make cell wall impermeable.
    • Present in sclerenchyma, collenchyma, and vessels, tracheids.

 

  • Cell wall and middle lamella maybe traversed by plasmodesmata which connects the cytoplasm of neighbouring cells.

 

  • Cell membrane
    • Mainly composed of bilayer phospholipids, also possess protein and carbohydrate.
    • lipids are arranged within the membrane with the polar head (hydrophilic) towards the outer sides and the nonpolar tails (hydrophobic) towards the inner part.

This ensures that the nonpolar tail of saturated hydrocarbons is protected from the aqueous environment.

  • The ratio of protein and lipid varies in different cell types.

( In human RBC membrane has 52% protein and 40% lipids.)

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  • Structure of cell membrane is explained by Fluid Mosaic Model which was given by Singer and Nicolsan.
  • According to this model the quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer.
  • The fluid nature of the membrane is important for functions like cell growth, formation of intercellular junctions, secretion, endocytosis, cell division etc.

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Fluid Mosaic Model

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  • Mitochondria
    • Double membrane bound cell organelle.

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  • Mitochondria are site of aerobic respiration. They produce ATP, hence called ‘Power House Of Cell’.
  • The matrix also possesses single circular DNA molecule, a few RNA molecules, ribosomes (70S) and the components required for the synthesis of proteins. So, mitochondria also known as ‘semi autonomous organelle’.
  • The mitochondria divide by fission and produce new mitochondria.

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  • Plastids
    • Found in all plant cells and in euglenoides.
    • They bear some specific pigments, thus imparting specific colours to the plants.

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  • Chloroplasts are mainly found in the mesophyll cells of the leaves.
  • These are various shaped like lens, oval, spherical, discoid, ribbon.
  • Double membrane bound Cell organelle. Inner is less permeable than outer.

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  • There are also stroma lamellae connecting the thylakoids of the different grana.
  • Stroma also contains small, double-stranded circular DNA molecules and ribosomes (70S). so, it is also known ‘semi autonomous organelle’.

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  • Endoplasmic Reticulum
    • a network or reticulum of tiny tubular structures scattered in the cytoplasm that is called the endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
    • Hence, ER divides the intracellular space into two distinct compartments, i.e., luminal(inside ER) and extra luminal(cytoplasm).

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  • Golgi apparatus
    • Discovered by Camillo Golgi.
    • They consist of many flat, disc-shaped sacs or cisternae stacked parallely.
    • The Golgi cisternae are concentrically arranged near the nucleus with distinct convex cis or the forming face and concave trans or the maturing face, which are interconnected.
    • The golgi apparatus principally performs the function of packaging materials.
    • golgi apparatus remains in close association with the endoplasmic reticulum as materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles from the ER fuse with the cis face of the golgi apparatus and move towards the maturing face.
    • A number of proteins synthesised by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum are modified in the cisternae of the golgi apparatus before they are released from its trans
    • Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids

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  • Lysosomes
    • These are membrane bound vesicular structures formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus.
    • The isolated lysosomal vesicles have been found to be very rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes (hydrolases – lipases, proteases, carbohydrases) optimally active at the acidic pH.
    • These enzymes are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids.
  • Vacuoles
    • Membrane-bound space found in the cytoplasm. Membrane known as tonoplast.
    • It contains water, sap, excretory product and other materials not useful for the cell.
    • In plant cells the vacuoles are very large.
    • In plants, the tonoplast facilitates the transport of a number of ions and other materials against concentration gradients into the vacuole.
    • In Amoeba the contractile vacuole is important for excretion.
    • In many cells food vacuoles are formed by engulfing the food particles.

 

  • Ribosome
    • first observed under the electron microscope by George Palade.
    • They are composed of ribonucleic acid (RNA) and proteins.
    • Not Bounded by any membrane.
    • The eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S while the prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.

(‘S’ stands for the sedimentation coefficient).

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  • Cytoskeleton
    • An elaborate network of filamentous proteinaceous structures present in the cytoplasm
    • Functions are mechanical support, motility, maintenance of the shape of the cell.
  • Cilia and Flagella
    • They are hair like outgrowths of cell membrane responsible for locomotion and movement of cell.
    • Cilia are small structures which work like oars, causing the movement of either the cell or the surrounding fluid. Flagella are comparatively longer.
    • Eukaryotic cilium and flagellum are covered with plasma membrane.
    • Their core called the axoneme, possesses a number of microtubules running parallel to the long axis. The axoneme usually has nine pairs of doublets of radially arranged peripheral microtubules, and a pair of centrally located microtubules. (9+2)
    • Both the cilium and flagellum emerge from centriole-like structure called the basal bodies.

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  • Centrosome and centriole
    • Centrosome is an organelle usually containing two perpendicularly lying centrioles surrounded by amorphous pericentriolar materials.
    • Centriole has an organisation like the cartwheel. They are made up of nine evenly spaced triplet peripheral fibrils of tubulin.
    • The central part of the centriole is also proteinaceous and called the hub, connected with peripheral tubules by radial
    • The centrioles form the basal body of cilia or flagella, and spindle fibres that give rise to spindle apparatus during cell division in animal cells.

 

  • Microbodies
    • Many membrane bound minute vesicles called microbodies that contain various enzymes.
    • They are present in both plant and animal cells.

 

  • Nucleus
    • first described by Robert Brown.
    • the material of the nucleus stained by the basic dyes was given the name chromatin by Flemming.
    • The interphase nucleus has nucleoprotein fibres called chromatin, nuclear matrix and one or more spherical bodies called
    • the nuclear envelope is consists of two parallel membranes with a space inbetween called perinuclear space.
    • The outer membrane usually remains continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum and also bears ribosomes on it.
    • At a number of places the nuclear envelope is interrupted by minute pores. These nuclear pores provide passages for movement of RNA and protein molecules.
    • Normally, there is only one nucleus per cell.Some mature cells even lack nucleus, e.g., erythrocytes of many mammals and sieve tube cells of vascular plants.
    • The nuclear matrix or the nucleoplasm contains nucleolus and chromatin.
    • The nucleoli are spherical structures present in the nucleoplasm. It is non-membrane bound. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis.
    • During cell division, chromatin network condenses into c
    • Chromatin contains DNA and some basic proteins called histones, some non-histone proteins and also RNA.
    • Every chromosome essentially has a primary constriction or the centromere on the sides of which disc shaped structures called kinetochores are present.

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  • Sometimes a few chromosomes have non-staining secondary constrictions at a constant location. This gives the appearance of a small fragment called the satellite.

 

 

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CHAPTER 8 – CELL: THE UNIT OF LIFE

 

 

 

 

DQS – 05

DQS – 05

  1. __________classification systems were based on evolutionary relationships between various organisms.

(a) Natural              (b) Artificial              (c) Phylogenetic           (d) Both (a) and (b)

  1. The sporophytic phase in Funaria is well developed and composed of
    • (a) capsule only
    • (b) spore sac
    • (c) foot and capsule
    • (d) foot, seta and capsule.
  1. Read the following statements regarding bryophytes and select the correct answer.

(i) Lack true roots, stem and leaves.

(ii) Main plant body is haploid.

(iii) Sex-organs are unicellular and non-jacketed.

(iv) Fertilization produces an embryo inside the water.

(a) Statements (i) and (ii) are correct

(b) Statements (ii) and (iii) are correct

(c) Statements (iii) and (iv) are correct

(d) All statements are correct

4. Select the correct pattern of arrangement of reproductive structures for gymnosperms.

(a) Spores –> Sporophylls –>Sporangia –>Strobili

(b) Spores –>Sporangia –>Sporophylls –> Strobili

(c) Sporangia –>Sporophylls –>Spores –>Strobili

(d) Spores –>Sporangia –>Strobili –>Sporophylls

  1. Which of the following structures are haploid in gymnosperms?

(a) Pollen grain, megaspore, embryo

(b) Pollen grain, megaspore, endosperm

(c) Megaspore, leaf, root

(d) Leaf, root, integument

  1. The sporophyte is the dominant phase in

(a) pteridophytes          (b) gymnosperms           (c) angiosperms               (d) all of these.

  1. In angiosperms, functional megaspore develops into

(a) embryo sac              (b) ovule                         (c) endosperm                 (d) pollen sac.

  1. Read the given statements and select the incorrect ones.

(i) Sporophyte in mosses is more elaborate than that in liverworts.

(ii) Salvinia is homosporous.

(iii) Life-cycle in all spermatophytes is diplontic.

(iv) In Cycas, male cones and megasporophylls are borne on the same trees.

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iv)

(d) (iii) and (iv)

  1. With respect to the fungal sexual cycle, choose the correct sequence of events.

(a)  Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis

(b)  Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy

(c)  Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis

(d)  Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy

  1. Which of the following groups of organisms are included under chrysophytes?

(a)  Diatoms and desmids (golden algae)

(b)  Diatoms and dinoflagellates

(c)  Euglenoids

(d)  Slime moulds

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Answers

1. C,

2. D,

3. A,

4. B,

5. B,

6. D,

7. A,

8. C,

9. C,

10. A.

CHAPTER 7: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

CHAPTER 7

STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

  • A group of similar cells of common origin along with intercellular substances performing a specific function is known as tissue.
  • Animal tissues are broadly classified into four types: (i) Epithelial, (ii) Connective, (iii) Muscular and (iv) Neural.

 

Tissue Origin Function
Epithelial Ecto, meso, endodermal Protection, absorption, secretion etc.
Connective Mesodermal To connect, support, transport etc
Muscular Mesodermal Locomotion and movement
Nervous Ectodermal Control and coordination

 

Epithelial Tissue

This tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the outside environment and thus provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body.

The cells are compactly packed with little intercellular matrix.

There are two types of epithelial tissues namely simple epithelium and compound epithelium. Simple epithelium –

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Connective Tissue

Connective tissues are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals.

They are named connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting other tissues/organs of the body.

In all connective tissues except blood, the cells secrete fibres of structural proteins called collagen or elastin which provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.

These cells also secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells and fibres and act as matrix (ground substance).

Connective tissues are classified into three types: (i) Loose connective tissue, (ii) Dense connective tissue and (iii) Specialised connective tissue.

 

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Muscle Tissue

  • Each muscle is made of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils, called myofibrils.
  • Muscle fibres contract (shorten) in response to stimulation, then relax (lengthen) and return to their uncontracted state in a coordinated fashion.
  • Their action moves the body to adjust to the changes in the environment and to maintain the positions of the various parts of the body.
  • In general, muscles play an active role in all the movements of the body.
  • Muscles are of three types, skeletal, smooth, and cardiac.

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 Neural Tissue

  • Neural tissue consists of neuron and neuroglial cells.
  • Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to changing conditions.
  • Neuron, an excitable cell is the unit of neural system.
  • The neuroglial cells which constitute the rest of the neural system protect and support neurons.
  • Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body.
  • When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly travels along its plasma membrane.
  • Arrival of the disturbance at the neuron’s endings, or output zone, triggers events that may cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons and other cells

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 ORGAN AND ORGAN SYSTEM

  • Tissues organise to form organs which in turn associate to form organ systems in the multicellular organisms, this results in more efficient and coordinated system of cells.
  • Each organ is made of one or more type of tissues.
  • Complexity in organ and organ systems displays certain evolutionary trend.

 

EARTHWORM

Habits and habitat –

  • Earthworm is a reddish brown terrestrial invertebrate that inhabits the upper layer of the moist soil.
  • During day time, they live in burrows made by boring and swallowing the soil. In the gardens, they can be traced by their faecal deposits known as worm castings.
  • The common Indian earthworms are Pheretima and

Morphology

  • Long cylindrical body.
  • Body is divided into many short segments which are similar (metameres about 100-120).
  • Body surfaces –

    • The dorsal surface of the body is marked by a dark median mid dorsal line (dorsal blood vessel) along the longitudinal axis of the body.
    • The ventral surface is distinguished by the presence of genital openings (pores).
    • Anterior end consists of the mouth and the prostomium, a lobe which serves as a covering for the mouth and as a wedge to force open cracks in the soil into which the earthworm may crawl. The prostomium is sensory in function.
  • Segments and their related structures –

    • The first body segment is called the peristomium (buccal segment) which contains the mouth.
    • In a mature worm, 14th, 15th, 16th segments are covered by a prominent dark band of glandular tissue called clitellum. Thus the body is divisible into three prominent regions – preclitellar, clitellar and postclitellar segments.
    • Four pairs of spermathecal apertures are situated on the ventro-lateral sides of the intersegmental grooves, i.e., 5th -9th
    • A single female genital pore is present in the mid-ventral line of 14th
    • A pair of male genital pores are present on the ventro-lateral sides of the 18th
    • Numerous minute pores called nephridiopores open on the surface of the body.
    • In each body segment, except the first, last and clitellum, there are rows of S-shaped setae, embedded in the epidermal pits in the middle of each segment. Setae can be extended or retracted. Their principal role is in locomotion.

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 Anatomy

Body Wall

  • Layers are outermost thin non-cellular cuticle, epidermis, two muscle layers (circular and longitudinal) and an innermost coelomic epithelium
  • The epidermis is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells which contain secretory gland cells.

Alimentary canal

  • It is a straight tube and runs between first to last segment of the body.
  • It consists of a terminal mouth, buccal cavity (1-3 segments), muscular pharynx, oesophagus (5-7 segments), muscular gizzard (8-9 segments), stomach (9-14 segments), intestine (15th to last segment), anus.
  • Gizzard helps in grinding the soil particles and decaying leaves.
  • Calciferous glands, present in the stomach, neutralise the humic acid present in humus.
  • A pair of short and conical intestinal caecae project from the intestine on the 26th segment.
  • In intestine between 26-35 segments, an internal median fold of dorsal wall called typhlosole is present. It increases the effective area of absorption in the intestine.

Circulatory system

  • Pheretima exhibits a closed type of blood vascular system, consisting of blood vessels, capillaries and heart.
  • Blood is confined to the heart and blood vessels. Contractions keep blood circulating in one direction. Smaller blood vessels supply the gut, nerve cord, and the body wall.
  • Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th segments. They produce blood cells and haemoglobin which is dissolved in blood plasma.
  • Blood cells are phagocytic in nature.

Respiratory system

  • Earthworms lack specialised breathing devices.
  • Respiratory exchange occurs through moist body surface into their blood stream.

Excretory system

  • The excretory organs occur as segmentally arranged coiled tubules called nephridia.
  • They are of three types (similar in structure) :
    1. septal nephridia – Present on both the sides of intersegmental septa of segment 15 to the last that open into intestine.
    2. integumentary nephridia – attached to lining of the body wall of segment 3 to the last that open on the body surface
    3. pharyngeal nephridia – Present as three paired tufts in the 4th, 5th and 6th segments.
  • Nephridia regulate the volume and composition of the body fluids. (osmotic regulation).
  • A nephridium starts out as a funnel that collects excess fluid from coelomic chamber. The funnel connects with a tubular part of the nephridium which delivers the wastes through a pore to the surface in the body wall into the digestive tube.

Nervous system

  • It is basically represented by ganglia arranged segmentwise on the ventral paired nerve cord.
  • The nerve cord in the anterior region (3rd and 4th segments) bifurcates, laterally encircling the pharynx and joins the cerebral ganglia dorsally to form a nerve ring.
  • The cerebral ganglia alongwith other nerves in the ring integrate sensory input as well as command muscular responses of the body.

Sense organs

  • eyes are absent but does possess light and touch sensitive organs.
  • Worms have specialised chemoreceptors (taste receptors) which react to chemical stimuli.
  • These sense organs are located on the anterior part of the worm.

Reproductive system

  • Earthworm is hermaphrodite (bisexual), i.e., testes and ovaries are present in the same individual.
  • Male –
    • two pairs of testes (10th, 11th segments).
    • Their vasa deferentia run up to the 18th segment where they join the prostatic duct.
    • Two pairs of accessory glands are present (in the 17th, 19th segments).
    • The common prostrate and spermatic duct (vary differential) opens to the exterior by a pair of male genital pores on the ventro-lateral side of the 18th
  • Female –
    • Four pairs of spermathecae are located in 6th-9th segments (one pair in each segment). They receive and store spermatozoa during copulation.
    • One pair of ovaries is attached at the inter-segmental septum of the 12th and 13th
    • Ovarian funnels are present beneath the ovaries which continue into oviduct, join together and open on the ventral side as a single median female genital pore on the 14th segment.
  • Fertilization –
    • It is a protandrous animal with crossfertilisation.
    • A mutual exchange of sperm occurs between two worms during mating. One worm has to find another worm and they mate juxtaposing opposite gonadal openings exchanging packets of sperms called spermatophores.
    • Mature sperm and egg cells and nutritive fluid are deposited in cocoons produced by the gland cells of clitellum.
    • Fertilisation and development occur within the cocoons which are deposited in soil.
    • The ova (eggs) are fertilised by the sperm cells within the cocoon which then slips off the worm and is deposited in or on the soil.
    • The cocoon holds the worm embryos.
    • After about 3 weeks, each cocoon produces two to twenty baby worms with an average of four.
    • Earthworms development is direct, i.e., there is no larva formed.

Economical uses –

  • Earthworms are known as ‘friends of farmers’ because they make burrows in the soil and make it porous which helps in respiration and penetration of the developing plant roots. The process of increasing fertility of soil by the earthworms is called vermicomposting.
  • They are also used as bait in game fishing.

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 COCKROACH

  • Brown or black bodied animals.
  • Included in class Insecta of Phylum Arthropoda.
  • Bright yellow, red and green coloured cockroaches have also been reported in tropical regions.
  • Size ranges from ¼ inches to 3 inches (0.6-7.6 cm) and have long antenna, legs and flat extension of the upper body wall that conceals head.
  • Nocturnal, Omnivores that live in damp places throughout the world.
  • They have become residents of human homes and thus are serious pests and vectors of several diseases.

Morphology

  • Scientific name of the common species of cockroach, Periplaneta Americana.
  • They are about 34-53 mm long with wings that extend beyond the tip of the abdomen in males.
  • The body of the cockroach is segmented and divisible into three distinct regions – head, thorax and abdomen.
  • The entire body is covered by a hard chitinous exoskeleton (brown in colour).
  • In each segment, exoskeleton has hardened plates called sclerites (tergites dorsally and sternites ventrally) that are joined to each other by a thin and flexible articular membrane (arthrodial membrane).
  • Head –

    • Head is triangular in shape and lies anteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal body axis.
    • It is formed by the fusion of six segments and shows great mobility in all directions due to flexible neck.
    • The head capsule bears a pair of compound eyes, a pair of thread like antennae which arise from membranous sockets lying in front of eyes. Antennae have sensory receptors that help in monitoring the environment.
    • At anterior end of the head, appendages forming biting and chewing type of mouth parts are present. The mouthparts consisting of a labrum (upper lip), a pair of mandibles, a pair of maxillae and a labium (lower lip).
    • A median flexible lobe, acting as tongue (hypopharynx), lies within the cavity enclosed by the mouthparts
  • Thorax –

    • It consists of three parts – prothorax, mesothorax and metathorax.
    • The head is connected with thorax by a short extension of the prothorax known as the neck.
    • Each thoracic segment bears a pair of walking legs.
    • The first pair of wings arises from mesothorax and the second pair from metathorax. Forewings (mesothoracic) called tegmina are opaque dark and leathery and cover the hind wings when at rest. The hind wings are transparent, membranous and are used in flight.
  • Abdomen –

    • The abdomen in both males and females consists of 10 segments.
    • In females, the 7th sternum is boat shaped and together with the 8th and 9th sterna form a brood or genital pouch whose anterior part contains female gonopore, spermathecal pores and collateral glands.
    • In males, genital pouch or chamber lies at the hind end of abdomen bounded dorsally by 9th and 10th terga and ventrally by the 9th It contains dorsal anus, ventral male genital pore and gonapophysis.
    • Males bear a pair of short, threadlike anal styles which are absent in females.
    • In both sexes, the 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structures called anal cerci.

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 Anatomy

  • Digestive system –

    • The alimentary canal is divided into three regions: foregut, midgut and hindgut.
    • Fore gut –
      • Consist of mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, crop, gizzard (Proventriculus).
      • Crop is sac like structure for storing of food.
      • Gizzard has an outer layer of thick circular muscles and thick inner cuticle forming six highly chitinous plate called teeth. Gizzard helps in grinding the food particles.
      • The entire foregut is lined by cuticle.
    • Mid gut –
      • A ring of 6-8 blind tubules called hepatic or gastric caecae is present at the junction of foregut and midgut, which secrete digestive juice.
    • Hind gut –
      • At the junction of midgut and hindgut 100-150 yellow coloured thin filamentous Malphigian tubules are present. They help in removal of excretory products from haemolymph.
      • The hindgut is broader than midgut and is differentiated into ileum, colon and rectum.
      • The rectum opens out through anus.
  • Blood vascular system –
    • Open type circulatory system.
    • Blood vessels are poorly developed and open into space (haemocoel).
    • Visceral organs located in the haemocoel are bathed in blood (haemolymph).
    • The haemolymph is composed of colourless plasma and haemocytes.
    • Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along mid dorsal line of thorax and abdomen.
    • It is differentiated into funnel shaped chambers with ostia on either side.
    • Blood from sinuses enter heart through ostia and is pumped anteriorly to sinuses again.
  • Respiratory system –
    • consists of a network of trachea, that open through 10 pairs of small holes called spiracles present on the lateral side of the body.
    • Thin branching tubes (tracheal tubes subdivided into tracheoles) carry oxygen from the air to all the parts.
    • The opening of the spiracles is regulated by the sphincters.
    • Exchange of gases take place at the tracheoles by diffusion.
  • Excretory system –
    • Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules.
    • Each tubule is lined by glandular and ciliated cells.
    • They absorb nitrogenous waste products and convert them into uric acid which is excreted out through the hindgut. Therefore, this insect is called uricotelic.
    • In addition, the fat body, nephrocytes and urecose glands also help in excretion.
  • Nervous system –
    • It consists of a series of fused, segmentally arranged ganglia joined by paired longitudinal connectives on the ventral side. Three ganglia lie in the thorax, and six in the abdomen.
    • The nervous system of cockroach is spread throughout the body.
    • The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is situated along the ventral (belly-side) part of its body. So, if the head of a cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as one week.
    • In the head region, the brain is represented by supra-oesophageal ganglion which supplies nerves to antennae and compound eyes.
  • Sense organs –
    • In cockroach, the sense organs are antennae, eyes, maxillary palps, labial palps, anal cerci, etc.
    • The compound eyes are situated at the dorsal surface of the head. Each eye consists of about 2000 hexagonal ommatidia. With the help of several ommatidia, a cockroach can receive several images of an object. This kind of vision is known as mosaic vision with more sensitivity but less resolution, being common during night (hence called nocturnal vision).
  • Reproductive system –
    • Cockroaches are dioecious and both sexes have well developed reproductive organs.
    • Male reproductive system –
      • It consists of a pair of testes (in the 4th -6th abdominal segments), vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, seminal vesicle.
      • The ejaculatory duct opens into male gonopore situated ventral to anus.
      • A characteristic mushroom shaped gland is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments which functions as an accessory reproductive gland.
      • The external genitalia are represented by male gonapophysis or phallomere (chitinous asymmetrical structures, surrounding the male gonopore).
      • The sperms are stored in the seminal vesicles and are glued together in the form of bundles called spermatophores which are discharged during copulation.
    • Female reproductive system –
      • It consists of two large ovaries (2nd – 6th abdominal segments), oviducts, vagina, genital chamber, spermathecal.
      • Each ovary is formed of a group of eight ovarian tubules or ovarioles, containing a chain of developing ova.
      • A pair of spermatheca is present in the 6th segment which opens into the genital chamber.
      • Sperms are transferred through spermatophores.
    • Fertilization and development –
      • Fertilization internal.
      • Fertilized eggs are encased in capsules called oothecae. Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule, about 3/8″ (8 mm) long.
      • They are dropped or glued to a suitable surface, usually in a crack or crevice of high relative humidity near a food source.
      • On an average, females produce 9-10 oothecae, each containing 14-16 eggs.
      • The development of americana is paurometabolous, meaning there is development through nymphal stage. The nymphs look very much like adults. The nymph grows by moulting about 13 times to reach the adult form.
      • The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads but only adult cockroaches have wings.

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FROGS

Habits and habitat

  • Frogs can live both on land and in freshwater and belong to class Amphibia of phylum Chordata.
  • Most common species of frog found in India is Rana tigrina.
  • They do not have constant body temperature i.e.; their body temperature varies with the temperature of the environment. Such animals are called cold blooded or poikilotherms.
  • They have the ability to change the colour to hide them from their enemies (camouflage). This protective coloration is called mimicry.
  • They take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from extreme heat and cold. This is called as summer sleep (aestivation) and winter sleep (hibernation).

Morphology

  • The skin is smooth and slippery due to the presence of mucus. The skin is always maintained in a moist condition.
  • The colour of dorsal side of body is generally olive green with dark irregular spots. On the ventral side the skin is uniformly pale yellow.
  • The frog never drinks water but absorb it through the skin.
  • Body of a frog is divisible into head and trunk. A neck and tail are absent.
  • Above the mouth, a pair of nostrils is present.
  • Eyes are bulged and covered by a nictitating membrane that protects them while in water.
  • On either side of eyes, a membranous tympanum (ear) receives sound signals.
  • The forelimbs and hind limbs help in swimming, walking, leaping and burrowing. The hind limbs end in five digits and they are larger and muscular than fore limbs that end in four digits.
  • Feet have webbed digits that help in swimming.
  • Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism. Male frogs can be distinguished by the presence of sound producing vocal sacs and also a copulatory pad on the first digit of the fore limbs which are absent in female frogs.

Anatomy

  • Digestive System –

    • It consists of alimentary canal and digestive glands.
    • The alimentary canal is short because frogs are carnivores and hence the length of intestine is reduced.
    • Alimentary canal consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, intestine, rectum and cloaca.
    • Food is captured by the bilobed tongue.
    • Digestion of food takes place by the action of HCl and gastric juices secreted from the walls of the stomach.
    • Partially digested food called chyme is passed from stomach to the first part of the intestine, the duodenum.
    • Liver secretes bile that is stored in the gall bladder.
    • Pancreas produces pancreatic juice containing digestive enzymes.
    • The duodenum receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juices from the pancreas through a common bile duct.
    • Bile emulsifies fat and pancreatic juices digest carbohydrates and proteins.
    • Final digestion takes place in the intestine.
    • Digested food is absorbed by the numerous finger-like folds in the inner wall of intestine called villi and microvilli.
    • The undigested solid waste moves into the rectum and passes out through cloaca.
  • Respiratory system –

    • Frogs respire on land and in the water by two different methods.
    • In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ (cutaneous respiration). Dissolved oxygen in the water is exchanged through the skin by diffusion.
    • On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.
    • The respiration by lungs is called pulmonary respiration. The lungs are a pair of elongated, pink coloured sac-like structures present in the upper part of the trunk region (thorax). Air enters through the nostrils into the buccal cavity and then to lungs.
    • During aestivation and hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through skin.
  • Circulatory system –

    • The vascular system of frog is well-developed closed type.
    • Frogs have a lymphatic system also.
    • The blood vascular system involves heart, blood vessels and blood.
    • The lymphatic system consists of lymph, lymph channels and lymph nodes.
    • Heart is a muscular structure situated in the upper part of the body cavity.
    • It has three chambers, two atria and one ventricle and is covered by a membrane called pericardium.
    • A triangular structure called sinus venosus joins the right atrium. It receives blood through the major veins called vena cava.
    • The ventricle opens into a saclike conus arteriosus on the ventral side of the heart.
    • The blood from the heart is carried to all parts of the body by the arteries (arterial system).
    • The veins collect blood from different parts of body to the heart and form the venous system.
    • Special venous connection between liver and intestine as well as the kidney and lower parts of the body are present in frogs. The former is called hepatic portal system and the latter is called renal portal system.
    • The blood is composed of plasma and cells.
    • The blood cells are RBC (red blood cells) or erythrocytes, WBC (white blood cells) or leucocytes and platelets.
    • RBC’s are nucleated and contain red coloured pigment namely haemoglobin.
    • The lymph is different from blood.
    • It lacks few proteins and RBCs.
    • The blood carries nutrients, gases and water to the respective sites during the circulation.
    • The circulation of blood is achieved by the pumping action of the muscular heart.
  • Excretory system –

    • The elimination of nitrogenous wastes is carried out by a well-developed excretory system.
    • The excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, ureters, cloaca and urinary bladder.
    • Kidneys are compact, dark red and bean like structures situated a little posteriorly in the body cavity on both sides of vertebral column.
    • Each kidney is composed of several structural and functional units called uriniferous tubules or nephrons.
    • Two ureters emerge from the kidneys in the male frogs. The ureters act as urinogenital duct which opens into the cloaca.
    • In females the ureters and oviduct open seperately in the cloaca.
    • The thin-walled urinary bladder is present ventral to the rectum which also opens in the cloaca.
    • The frog excretes urea and thus is a ureotelic
    • Excretory wastes are carried by blood into the kidney where it is separated and excreted.
  • Endocrine system-

    • The chemical coordination of various organs of the body is achieved by hormones which are secreted by the endocrine glands.
    • The prominent endocrine glands found in frog are pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, thymus, pineal body, pancreatic islets, adrenals and gonads.
  • Nervous system –

    • The nervous system is organised into a central nervous system (brain and spinal cord), a peripheral nervous system (cranial and spinal nerves) and an autonomic nervous system (sympathetic and parasympathetic).
    • There are ten pairs of cranial nerves arising from the brain.
    • Brain is enclosed in a bony structure called brain box (cranium).
    • The brain is divided into fore-brain, mid-brain and hind-brain.
    • Forebrain includes olfactory lobes, paired cerebral hemispheres and unpaired diencephalon.
    • The midbrain is characterised by a pair of optic lobes.
    • Hind-brain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
    • The medulla oblongata passes out through the foramen magnum and continues into spinal cord, which is enclosed in the vertebral column.
  • Sense organs –

    • Frog has different types of sense organs, namely organs of touch (sensory papillae), taste (taste buds), smell (nasal epithelium), vision (eyes) and hearing (tympanum with internal ears).
    • Eyes and internal ears are well-organised structures and the rest are cellular aggregations around nerve endings.
    • Eyes in a frog are a pair of spherical structures situated in the orbit in skull. These are simple eyes (possessing only one unit).
    • External ear is absent in frogs and only tympanum can be seen externally. The ear is an organ of hearing as well as balancing (equilibrium).
  • Reproductive system –

    • Frogs have well organised male and female reproductive systems.
    • Male reproductive system –
      • It consists of a pair of yellowish ovoid testes, which are found adhered to the upper part of kidneys by a double fold of peritoneum called mesorchium.
      • Vasa efferentia are 10-12 in number that arise from testes.
      • They enter the kidneys on their side and open into Bidder’s canal.
      • Finally, it communicates with the urinogenital duct that comes out of the kidneys and opens into the cloaca.
      • The cloaca is a small, median chamber that is used to pass faecal matter, urine and sperms to the exterior.
    • Female reproductive system –
      • It includes a pair of ovaries. The ovaries are situated near kidneys and there is no functional connection with kidneys.
      • A pair of oviduct arising from the ovaries opens into the cloaca separately.
      • A mature female can lay 2500 to 3000 ova at a time.
    • Fertilisation and development –
      • Fertilization is external and takes place in water.
      • Development involves a larval stage called tadpole.
      • Tadpole undergoes metamorphosis to form the adult.

Economic importance –

  • Frogs are beneficial for mankind because they eat insects and protect the crop.
  • Frogs maintain ecological balance because these serve as an important link of food chain and food web in the ecosystem.
  • In some countries the muscular legs of frog are used as food by man.

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printable pdf file of notes is available.. for download please click on following link

CHAPTER 7: STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS

Solution of GujCET 2016 biology (code 11) 10-05-2016

GUJCET 2016

Code 11

BIOLOGY

  1. Choose the correct option for statement P. Q and R in relevance to grass.

Statement P – Flower possess attractive colour and fragrance

Statement Q – Pollengrains are small, dry and light in weight

Statement R – Grass is air pollinated plant.

(A) Both P and Q are true. R is correct explanation of Q

(B) P is true and Q is false. R is correct explanation of P.

(C) P is false and Q is true. R is the correct explanation of Q

(D) Both P and Q are false. R has no relation with P and Q.

Ans.    (C) P is false and Q is true. R is the correct explanation of Q

  [Pg. 42, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Which is the correct option for the maintenance of the conc. of urine?

(A) Counter current produced in two limbs of Henle’s loop

(B) Counter current produced in two limbs of Vasa recta

(C) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop

(D) Counter current produced by Henle’s loop and Vasa recta

Ans.    (D) Counter current produced by Henle’s loop and Vasa recta

 [Pg. 94, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Function of ADH –

(A) Water absorption from the latero-posterior parts of the tubules.

(B) Facilitates water re-absorption from posterior parts of the tubules.

(C) Facilitates water absorption from the distal parts of the tubules.

(D) All the above

Ans.    (B) Facilitates water re-absorption from posterior parts of the tubules.

[Pg. 96, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. How many facial bones are present in pair?

(A) 5                              (B) 6                                   (C) 14                                 (D) 7

Ans.    (B) 6                                                                                                    [Pg. 105, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Prolong activation of striated muscle causes it to fatigue. What is the reason?

(A) Breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid in muscle during aerobic respiration.

(B) Breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid in muscle during anaerobic respiration

(C) Breakdown of lactic acid into glycogen during anaerobic respiration

(D) Produce ethanol in muscles

Ans.    (B) Breakdown of glycogen into lactic acid in muscle during anaerobic respiration

 [Pg. 105, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. In deep freshwater ponds, different layers of water with different temperatures are noticed. This is known as

(A) Thermal stratification                                       (B) Surface tension

(C) Water equilibrium                                            (D) Thermal equilibrium

Ans.    (A) Thermal stratification                                                                 [Pg. 113, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. What indicates ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the given figure?

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(A) X-Potential natality, Y-Carrying capacity

(B) X-Environmental resistance, Y-Potential natality

(C) X-Carrying capacity, Y-Environmental resistance

(D) X-Environmental resistance, Y-Carrying capacity

Ans.    (D) X-Environmental resistance, Y-Carrying capacity

 [Pg. 117, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. Statement A: The flow of energy is unidirectional in Ecosystcm

Reason R: Consumers utilize the chemical energy as food and it is released into the atmosphere in the form of heat energy. It cannot be reused

(A) A and R both are true and R is the reason for A

(B) A and R both are false R is not the reason for A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

Ans.    (A) A and R both are true and R is the reason for A

   [Pg. 134, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. Where more than half of the species on the earth live?

(A) Tropical zone          (B) Temperate zone          (C) Dry tropical forests      (D) Moist tropical forest.

Ans.    (D) Moist tropical forest                                                            [Pg. 146, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Match the Column -1 and II. Choose the correct option.
Column -1 Column – II
P e – waste i) Waste clothing
Q Biodegradable waste ii) Dirt
R Inert waste iii) Green waste
S Composite waste iv) Irreparable waste

(A) (P – i) (Q – ii) (R – iv) (S – iii)                                (B) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)

(C) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – ii)                                (D) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – i) (S – ii)

Ans.    (B) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)                                      [Pg. 163,164, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. What are called micelles during absorption?

(A) small glycerol molecules                                  (B) small droplets of fatty acids

(C) very small fat droplets                                      (D) large fat molecules

Ans.    (B) small droplets of fatty acids                                                [Pg. 62, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. In_________, both dominant and recessive alleles lack their dominant and recessive relationships.

(A) Incomplete dominance                                     (B) Polygenic inheritance

(C) Multiple alleles                                                 (D) Co-dominance

Ans.    (D) Co-dominance                                                                      [Pg. 91, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Match the following. Choose the correct option.
Disease Symptoms
P – Gonorrhoea

Q – Trichomoniasis

R – Hepatitis B

S – Syphilis

i)      loss of appetites, pain upper right abdomen

ii)     white patches on the tongue or roof of buccal cavity

iii)   pain while passing urine

iv)   itching in and around vagina

(A) (P – i) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – iii)                                (B) (P – iv) (Q – iii) (R – ii) (S – i)

(C) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – ii)                                 (D) (P – iii) (Q – i) (R – ii) (S – iv)

Ans.    (C) (P – iii) (Q – iv) (R – i) (S – ii)                                                 [Pg. 80, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Mendel’s law of segregation is also known as –

(A) Law of separation                                             (B) Law of dominance

(C) Law of purity of gametes                                  (D) Law of independent assortment

Ans.    (C) Law of purity of gametes                                                         [Pg. 88, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Transgenic animals mean

(A) Genes of these animals are introduced into other animals

(B) All the genes are from the same animal

(C) These animals are used as vector

(D) The introduction of exogenous DNA into the genome of an animal to create and maintain a stable heritable character.

Ans.    (D) The introduction of exogenous DNA into the genome of an animal to create and maintain a stable heritable character.                                                      [Pg. 174, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Which type of movement is observed in Drocera?

(A) Thigmotropism       (B) Hydrotropism              (C) Hydronasty                  (D) Thigmonasty

Ans.    (D) Thigmonasty                                                                                  [Pg. 62, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. In which phase of menstrual cycle progesterone level rises?

(A) Menstrual phase     (B) Proliferative phase      (C) Secretory phase           (D) Maturation phase

Ans.    (C) Secretory phase                                                                              [Pg. 71, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. in which of the following cry protein is synthesized?

(A) Simple cotton                                                    (B) Bt Cotton only

(C) bacillus thuringiensis only                                 (D) Bt cotton and Bacillus thuringiensis

Ans.    (D) Bt cotton and Bacillus thuringiensis                                  [Pg. 172, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. In Recombinant DNA technology which technique is used to separate fragments of DNA?

(A) Electroporation                                                 (B) Particle bombardment

(C) Agarose gel electrophoresis                             (D) Electrolysis

Ans.    (C) Agarose gel electrophoresis                                                  [Pg. 165, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Which of the following is not included into anthropoids?

(A) Gibbon                    (B) Chimpanzee                 (C) Lemur                          (D) Human

Ans.    (C) Lemur                                                                                       [Pg. 153, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. What is fused with maize for the manufacturing of genetically modified (G.M.) sugar in America?

(A) Brazzein                  (B) Basmati                       (C) Cane sugar                   (D) Zeamin

Ans.    (A) Brazzein                                                                                           [Pg. 177, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Identify P and Q in the figure and mention the process takes place.

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(A) P – Diaphragm relax, Q – Thoracic cavity increases Inhalation

(B) P – Diaphragm contract, Q – Thoracic cavity decreases Exhalation

(C) P – Diaphragm relax, Q – Thoracic cavity reduces Exhalation

(D) P – Diaphragm contract, Q – Thoracic cavity increases Exhalation

Ans.    [BONUS] P–Diagram relax, Q–thoracic cavity increases exhalation.

[Pg. 70, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Mostly bread is in the semisweet taste due to

(A) Yeast                       (B) Remnants of alcohol   (C) Sugar                           (D) Acetic acid

Ans.    (B) Remnants of alcohol                                                       [Pg. 160, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. What is the time gap when atria and ventricle both undergoes diastole?

(A) 0.10 sec                   (B) 0.50 sec                       (C) 0.40 sec                       (D) 0.30 sec

Ans.    (C) 0.40 sec                                                                                   [Pg. 84, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Identify P, Q, R, S in the given figure

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(A) P – Negative Regulation, Q – Inhibitor, R – Effector molecule, S – Positive Regulation

(B) P – Positive Regulation, Q – Effector molecule, R – Inhibitor, S – Negative Regulation

(C) P – Negative Regulation, Q – Inhibitor, R – Positive Regulation, S – Effector molecule

(D) P- Positive Regulation, Q – Effector Molecule, R – Negative Regulation, S – Inhibitor

Ans.    (C) P – Negative Regulation, Q – Inhibitor, R – Positive Regulation, S – Effector molecule                                                                                                         [Pg. 131, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Pathogenic which is responsible for the production of tumor in most of dicot plants.

(A) Retrovirus               (B) Bacteriophage             (C) Ti plasmid                    (D) Vector

Ans.    (C) Ti plasmid                                                                                 [Pg. 164, GSEB 4th Sem.]

  1. Which Genetic codon has dual functions?

(A) AGU                         (B) ACG                              (C) AUA                              (D) AUG

Ans.    (D) AUG                                                                                                [Pg. 124, GSEB 4th Sem.]

  1. Match the Column – I and II and choose the correct option.
Column -1 Column – II
P) Pepsin

Q) Erepsin

R) Carboxypeptidase

S) Renin

i)                 Casein → Paracasein

ii)               Polypeptides → Peptides and amino acids

iii)             Proteins → Proteoses + Peptones

iv)             Dipeptide → amino acids

(A) (P-iii) (Q-iv) (R-i) (S–ii)

(B) (P-iii) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – i)

(C) (P-iv) (Q-ii) (R–iii) (S–i)

(D) (P – i) (Q–iii) (R–iv) (S–ii)

Ans.    (B) (P-iii) (Q – iv) (R – ii) (S – i)                                                      [Pg. 60, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Identify ‘X’ and ‘Y’ in the given diagram

1.jpg

(A) X-Inter neuron, Y-Cell body of motor neuron

(B) X-Cell body of motor neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion

(C) X-Inter neuron, Y-Sensory neuron

(D) X-Inter neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion

Ans.    (B) X-Cell body of motor neuron, Y-Dorsal root ganglion

 [Pg. 9, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. Activities like running, talking and typing are controlled by

(A) Cerebellum             (B) pons                             (C) Medulla oblongata      (D) Mid brain

Ans.    (A) Cerebellum                                                                             [Pg. 8, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. How many endocrine glands are located in human brain?

(A) 03                            (B) 04                                 (C) 02                                 (D) 09

Ans.    (C) 02, Pituitary and Pineal glands                                        [Pg. 17, GSEB 4th Sem.]     

  1. What is the function of ‘P’ in the given figure?

1.jpg

(A) Regulate carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism

(B) Regulate the mineral metabolism

(C) Development of female sexual characters

(D) Antiallergic and anti-inflamatory effects

Ans.    (B) Regulate the mineral metabolism                                              [Pg.19, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. 32 chromosomes are present in the green leaf of onion. When meiosis takes place to produce gametes after fertilization, how many chromosomes will be there in triploid nucleus?

(A) 32                            (B) 16                                 (C) 48                                 (D) 08

Ans.    (C) 48 [2n = 32; 3n = 48]                                                                       [Pg.31, GSEB 4th Sem.]

  1. “Pollengrains are protected by a mucilaginous covering and having specific gravity”. This is the characteristic of which type of pollination?

(A) Anemophily             (B) Entomophily                (C) Hydrophily                   (D) Zoophily

Ans.    (C) Hydrophily                                                                                      [Pg.43, GSEB 4th Sem.]

 

  1. The movement of water and minerals in xylem and the movement of phloem sap in phloem is respectively.

(A) Unidirectional, bidirectional                             (B) Bidirectional, bidirectional

(C) Bidirectional, unidirectional                             (D) Unidirectional, unidirectional

Ans.    (A) Unidirectional, bidirectional                                                     [Pg. 9, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. In the given figure, which’is the initial condition of plasmolysis?

1.jpg

(A) P                              (B) Q                                  (C) R                                  (D) S

Ans.    (B) Q                                                                                                          [Pg. 5, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Which of the following group belongs to macronutrient elements?

(A) B, N                (B) Ca, P                             (C) Ni, Na                           (D) K, Co

Ans.    (B) Ca,P                                                                                              [Pg. 16, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

  1. What are the names of free living aerobic and anaerobic nitrogen fixation bacteria respectively?

(A) Rhizobium – Clostridium                                  (B) Azotobacter – Clostridium

(C) Azotobacter – Agrobacterium                          (D) Agrobacterium – Clostridium

Ans.    (B) Azotobacter – Clostridium                                                     [Pg. 24, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. Choose the correct option for the chloroplast of bundle sheath from the following.

(A) They show grana organization

(B) They do not show grana organization

(C) They do not possess thylakoid

(D) They possess thylakoid and grana organization

Ans.    (B) They do not show grana organization                                      [Pg. 35, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

  1. In glycolysis process during which reaction water molecule is released?

(A) 2 phosphoglyceric acid → phosphoenol pyruvic acid

(B) PGAL → BPGA

(C) 1,3 biphosphoglyceric acid → phosphoglyceric acid

(D) phosphoenol pyruvic acid →pyruvic acid

Ans.     (A) 2 phosphoglyceric acid → phosphoenol pyruvic acid.    [Pg. 43, GSEB 3rd Sem.]

 

full biology paper with reference in pdf file is available here..

gujcet 2016

Solution of NEET 2016 biology (1st phase) 01-05-2016

 

NEET Phase-I Biology solution

Code – X

(Downloadble pdf file is given below)

  1. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by:
    1. Phosphodiester bond
    2. Covalentbond
    3. Disulphide bridges
    4. Hydrogen bonds

Ans.   (3) Disulphide bridges  [NCERT class 12, page 211]

  1. The coconut water from tender coconut represents :
    1. Fleshy mesocarp
    2. Free nuclear proembryo
    3. Free nuclear endosperm
    4. Endocarp

Ans.   (3) Free nuclear endosperm     [NCERT class 12, page 35]

  1. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids ?
    1. Circular structure
    2. Transferable
    3. Single – stranded
    4. Independent replication

Ans.   (3) Single – stranded     [NCERT class 12, page 194]

  1. Which is the National Aquatic Animal of India?
    1. River dolphin
    2. Blue whale
    3. Sea-horse
    4. Gangetic shark

Ans.   (1) River dolphin

  1. The Avena curvature is used for bioassay of:
    1. GA3
    2. IAA
    3. Ethylene
    4. ABA

Ans.   (2) IAA

  1. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
    1. Alien species invasion
    2. Habitat loss and fragmentation
    3. Co – extinctions
    4. Over – exploitation

Ans.   (2) Habitat loss and fragmentation      [NCERT class 12, page 264]

 

  1. Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?
(1) Intra uterine devices increase phagocytosis of sperms, suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity of sperms
(2) Hormonal contraceptives Prevent/retard entry of sperms, prevent ovulation and fertilization
(3) Vasectomy prevents spermatogenesis
(4) Barrier methods prevent fertilization

Ans.   (3) Vasectomy – prevent spermatogenesis.     [NCERT class 12, page 59-62]

 

  1. In a testcross involving dihybrid flies, more parental-type offspring were produced than the recombinant-type offspring. This indicates:
    1. Chromosomes failed to separate during meiosis.
    2. The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.
    3. Both of the characters are controlled by more than one gene.
    4. The two genes are located on two different chromosomes.

Ans.    (2) The two genes are linked and present on the same chromosome.           [NCERT class 12, page 83]

 

  1. A typical fat molecule is made up of:
    1. One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
    2. One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
    3. Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
    4. Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule

Ans.    (1) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules          [NCERT class 11, page 145, Fig.9.1]

 

  1. Match the terms in Column I with their description in Column II and choose the correct option:

Column I          Column II

(a)  Dominance        (i) Many genes govern a single character

(b)  Codominance   (ii) In a heterozygous organism only one allele expresses itself

(c)  Pleiotropy         (iii) In a heterozygous organism both alleles express themselves fully

(d) Polygenic           (iv) A single gene influences inheritancemany characters

Code:

(a)        (b)          (c)          (d)

  1. (ii)       (iii)       (iv)       (i)
  2. (iv)       (i)         (ii)        (iii)
  3. (iv)     (iii)         (i)         (ii)
  4. (ii)        (i)         (iv)       (iii)

Ans.    (1)         a-(ii)    b-(iii)     c-(iv)    d-(i)

  1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
    1. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers.
    2. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil.
    3. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species.
    4. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.

Ans     (4) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style.          [NCERT class 12, page 30,31,32]

  1. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
    1. Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development
    2. Exoskeleton composed of N-acetylglucosamine
    3. Metamerically segmented body
    4. Schizocoelom as body cavity

Ans      (1) Indeterminate and radial cleavage during embryonic development.

58.Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are:

  1. Chlorophylls
  2. Carotenoids
  3. Anthocyanins
  4. Xanthophylls

Ans    (3) Anthocyanins.

59.A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in:

  1. Polyploidy
  2. Somaclonal variation
  3. Polyteny
  4. Aneuploidy

Ans.      (1) Polyploidy

60.A plant in your garden avoids photorespiratory losses, has improved water use efficiency, shows high rates of photosynthesis at high temperatures and has improved efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In which of the following physiological groups would you assign this plant?

  1. C4
  2. CAM
  3. Nitrogen fixer
  4. C3

Ans.     (1)     C4

61.In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to:

  1. Graft rejection
  2. Auto-immune disease
  3. Active immunity
  4. Allergic response

Ans.     (2) Auto-immune disease                             [NCERT class 12, page 153]

62.Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of:

  1. Two photosystems operating simultaneously
  2. Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
  3. Oxidative phosphorylation
  4. Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport

Ans.     (1) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

63.Select the correct statement:

  1. Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
  2. Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
  3. The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
  4. Gymnosperms are both homosporous and heterosporous

Ans.     (2) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees                    [NCERT class 11, page 39]

64. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature during mitosis in somatic cells?

  1. Disappearance of nucleolus
  2. Chromosome movement
  3. Synapsis
  4. Spindle fibres

Ans.      (3) Synapsis                                             [NCERT class 11, page 168]

65. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is:

  1. more than that in the carotid.
  2. more than that in the pulmonary vein.
  3. less than that in the venae cavae.
  4. same as that in the aorta.

Ans.     (2) more than that in the pulmonary vein.

 

66. Which of the following structures is homologus to the wing of a bird?

  1. Wing of a Moth
  2. Hind limb of Rabbit
  3. Flipper of Whale
  4. Dorsal fin of a Shark

Ans.     (3) Flipper of whale.

67. Seed formation without fertilization in flowering plants involves the process of:

  • Budding
  • Somatic hybridization
  • Apomixis
  • Sporulation

Ans.      (3) Apomixis                                            [NCERT class 12, page 38]

68. Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking:

  • Asthma
  • Respiratory acidosis
  • Respiratory alkalosis
  • Emphysema

Ans.      (4) Emphysema                                       [NCERT class 11, page 275]

69. Spindle fibres attach on to:

  1. Kinetochore of the chromosome
  2. Centromere of the chromosome
  3. Kinetosome of the chromosome
  4. Telomere of the chromosome

Ans.     (1) Kinetochore of the chromosome                      [NCERT class 11, page 165]

70. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. It is used for prenatal sex determination.
  2. It can be used for detection of Down syndrome.
  3. It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.
  4. It is usually done when a woman is between 14 -16 weeks pregnant.

Ans.   (3) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate.

71. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the functions of leaves are known as:

  1. phyllode
  2. Phylloclades
  3. Scales
  4. Cladodes

Ans.   (2) Phylloclade.

72. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are found in:

  1. Lumen of thylakoids
  2. Inter membrane space
  3. Antennae complex
  4. Stroma

Ans.      (1) Lumen of thylakoids                         [NCERT class 11, page 213]

73. Nomenclature is governed by certain universal rules. Which one of the following is contrary to the rules of nomenclature?

  1. The first word in a biological name represents the genus name, and the second is a specific epithet
  2. The names are written in Latin and are italicised
  3. When written by hand, the names are to be underlined
  4. Biological names can be written in any language

Ans.     (4) Biological names can be written in any language                [NCERT class 11, page 7]

74. In meiosis crossing over is initiated at:

  1. Leptotene
  2. Zygotene
  3. Diplotene
  4. Pachytene

Ans.     (4) Pachytene

75. Antivenom injection contains preformed antibodies while polio drops that are administered into the body contain:

  1. Harvested antibodies
  2. Gamma globulin
  3. Attenuated pathogens
  4. Activated pathogens

Ans.      (3) Attenuated pathogens

76. The taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from:

  1. Thiobacillus ferroxidans
  2. Bacillus subtilis
  3. Pseudomonas putida
  4. Thermus aquaticus

Ans.      (4) Thermus aquaticus                   [NCERT class 12, page 203]

 

  1. Which of the following most appropriately describes haemophilia?
    1. X-linked recessive gene disorder
    2. Chromosomal disorder
    3. Dominant gene disorder
    4. Recessive gene disorder

Ans.      (1)     X-linked recessive gene disorder  [NCERT class 12, page 89]

 

  1. The standard petal of a papilionaceous corolla is also called:
    1. Pappus
    2. Vexillum
    3. Corona
    4. Carina

Ans.      (2)     vexillum                         [NCERT class 11, page 74]

  1. Which part of the tobacco plant is infected by Meloidogyne incognita ?
    1. Leaf
    2. Stem
    3. Root
    4. Flower

Ans.     (3) Root

  1. Which of the following statements is wrong foi viroids ?
    1. They are smaller than viruses
    2. They cause infections
    3. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
    4. They lack a protein coat

Ans.     (3)     Their RNA is of high molecular weight           [NCERT class 11, page 27]

81. Which of the following statements is not true for cancer cells in relation to mutations?

  1. Mutations destroy telomerase inhibitor.
  2. Mutations inactivate the cell control.
  3. Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.
  4. Mutations in proto-oncogenes accelerate the cell cycle.

Ans.    (3)     Mutations inhibit production of telomerase.

82. Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location?

Tissue                                        Location

  1. Areolar tissue                                 Tendons
  2. Transitional epithelium              Tip of nose
  3. Cuboidal epithelium                     Lining of stomach
  4. Smooth muscle                              Wall of intestine

Ans.      (4)     Smooth muscle                     Wall of intestine             [NCERT class 11, page 101,103,105]

83. Which of the following pairs of hormones are not antagonistic (having opposite effects) to each other?

  1. Insulin –              Glucagon
  2. Aldosterone –              Atrial Natriuretic Factor
  3. Relaxin –               Inhibin
  4. Parathormone –              Calcitonin

Ans.      (3)     Relaxin                        –               Inhibin

84. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called:

  1. Subsidiary cells
  2. Bulliformcells
  3. Lenticels
  4. Complementary cells

Ans.     (1)    Subsidiary cells                         [NCERT class 11, page 89]

85. Fertilization in humans is practically feasible only if:

  1. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.
  2. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the cervix.
  3. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus.
  4. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube.

Ans.     (1)     the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary – isthmic junction of the fallopian tube.                                   [NCERT class 12, page 51]

86. Which one of the following is the starter codon?

  1. UGA
  2. UAA
  3. UAG
  4. AUG

Ans.      (4)     AUG                 [NCERT class 12, page 112]

87. A river with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:

  1. Increased population of aquatic food web organisms.
  2. An increased production of fish due to biodegradable nutrients.
  3. Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.
  4. Drying of the river very soon due to algal bloom.

Ans.     (3)     Death of fish due to lack of oxygen.                            [NCERT class 12, page 275]

88. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life:

(a)  The earliest organisms that appeared on the earth were non-green and presumably anaerobes.

(b) autotrophic organisms were the chemoautotrophs that never released oxygen.

Of the above statements which one of the following options is correct ?

  1. (b) is correct but (a) is false.
  2. Both (a) and (b) are correct.
  3. Both (a) and (b) are false.
  4. (a) is correct but (b) is false.

Ans.     (2)     Both (a) and (b) are correct.

  1. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is called:
    1. Contour fanning
    2. Strip farming
    3. Shifting agriculture
    4. Ley farming

Ans.     (4)     Ley farming

 

  1. Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that:
    1. Competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences
    2. No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
    3. Larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
    4. More abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.

Ans.     (2)     No two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources. [NCERT class 12, page 235]

  1. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
(1) Viviparous Mammalia
(2) Possess a mouth with an upper and a lower jaw Chordata
(3) 3 – chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle Reptilia
(4) Cartilaginous endoskeleton Chondrichthyes

Ans.    (4)     Cartilaginous endoskeleton – Chondrichthyes

  1. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of:
    1. estrogen and inhibin
    2. progesterone only
    3. progesterone and inhibin
    4. estrogen and progesterone

Ans.   (4)   estrogen and progesterone

  1. Microtubules are the constituents of:
    1. Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia
    2. Centrioles, Spindle fibres and Chromatin
    3. Centrosome, Nucleosome and Centrioles
    4. Cilia, Flagella and Peroxisomes

Ans.     (1)     Spindle fibres, Centrioles and Cilia               [NCERT class 11, page 137,164]

 

  1. Mitochondria and chloroplast are:

(a) semi-autonomous organelles.

(b) formed by division of pre-existing organelles and they contain DNA but lack protein synthesizing machinery.

             Which one of the following options is correct ?

  1. (b) is true but (a) is false.
  2. (a) is true but (b) is false.
  3. Both (a) and (b) are false.
  4. Both (a) and (b) are correct.

Ans.     (2)     (a) is true but (b) is false.

 

  1. Photosensitive compound in human eye is made up of:
    1. Opsin and Retinal
    2. Opsin and Retinol
    3. Transducin and Retinene
    4. Guanosine and Retinol

Ans.     (1)     Opsin and Retinal                  [NCERT class 11, page 324]

96. Chrysophytes, Euglenoids, Dinoflagellates and Slime moulds are included in the kingdom:

  1. Protista
  2. Fungi
  3. Animalia
  4. Monera

Ans.     (1)     Protista                                       [NCERT class 11, page 20]

97. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals, include the:

  1. Thermoacidophiles
  2. Methanogens
  3. Eubacteria
  4. Halophiles

Ans.     (2)     Methanogens                          [NCERT class 11, page 19]

98. Identify the correct statement on ‘inhibin’:

  1. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.
  2. Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH.
  3. Is produced by nurse cells in testes and inhibits the secretion of LH.
  4. Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and Prolactin.

Ans.     (1)     Is produced by granulose cells in ovary and inhibits the secretion of FSH.

99. It is much easier for a small animal to run uphill than for a large animal, because:

  1. Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.
  2. Small animals have a lower O2
  3. The efficiency of muscles in large animals is less than in the small animals.
  4. It is easier to carry a small body weight.

Ans.     (1)     Smaller animals have a higher metabolic rate.

100. A tall true breeding garden pea plant is crossed with a dwarf true breeding garden pea plant. When the F1 plants were selfed the resulting genotypes were in the ratio of:

  1. 1:2:1:: Tall heterozygous: Tall homozygous : Dwarf
  2. 3:1:: Tall: Dwarf
  3. 3:1:: Dwarf: Tall
  4. 1:2:1:: Tall homozygous: Tall heterozygous : Dwarf

Ans.     (4)     1:2:1:: Tall homozygous: Tall heterozygous : Dwarf           [NCERT class 12, page 74]

101.Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers:

  1. Ozone
  2. Ammonia
  3. Methane
  4. Nitrous oxide

Ans.     (1)     Ozone                                           [NCERT class 12, page 283]

102.Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?

  1. Least genetic diversity
  2. Absence of weeds
  3. Ecological succession
  4. Absence of soil organisms

Ans.     (1)     Least genetic diversity

103.Tricarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of:

  1. Solanaceae
  2. Fabaceae
  3. Poaceae
  4. Liliaceae

Ans.     (4)     Liliaceae                        [NCERT class 11, page 81]

104.In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?

  1. Iron, copper, molybdenum
  2. Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
  3. Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
  4. Boron, zinc, manganese

Ans.     (Bonus)                                    [NCERT class 11, page 196]

105. Reduction in pH of blood will:

  1. reduce the blood supply to the brain.
  2. decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen.
  3. release bicarbonate ions by the liver.
  4. reduce the rate of heart beat.

Ans.     (2)     decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen    [NCERT class 11, page 274]

106. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as:

  1. Fatigue
  2. Tetanus
  3. Tonus
  4. Spasm

Ans.     (2)     Tetanus

107. Which one of the following statements is wrong?

  1. Golden algae are also called desmids.
  2. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
  3. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
  4. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae.

Ans.     (2)     Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.                   [NCERT class 11, page 19, 20]

108. Which of the following is a restriction endonuclease?

  1. Protease
  2. DNase I
  3. RNase
  4. Hind II

Ans.     (4)     Hind II                                             [NCERT class 12, page 195]

  1. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
  1. Liverworts
  2. Mosses
  3. Green algae
  4. Lichens

Ans.     (4)     Lichens                                          [NCERT class 12, page 251]

  1. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options:
    1. Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.
    2. The above processes happen only during night time.
    3. One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
    4. Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.

Ans.     (1)     Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO2 is different.

  1. Cotyledon of maize grain is called:
    1. coleorhiza
    2. coleoptile
    3. scutellum
    4. plumule

Ans.     (3) Scutellum                                           [NCERT class 11, page 77]

  1. Which of the following guards the opening of hepatopancreatic duct into the duodenum?
    1. Ileocaecal valve
    2. Pyloric sphincter
    3. Sphincter of Oddi
    4. Semilunar valve

Ans.     (3) Sphincter of Oddi                                             [NCERT class 11, page 261]

  1. In the stomach, gastric acid is secreted by the:
    1. parietal cells
    2. peptic cells
    3. acidic cells
    4. gastrin secreting cells

Ans.     (1) parietal cells                 [NCERT class 11, page 262]

  1. In mammals, which blood vessel would normally carry largest amount of urea?
    1. Dorsal Aorta
    2. Hepatic Vein
    3. Hepatic Portal Vein
    4. Renal Vein

Ans.    (2)   Hepatic vein

115. The term ecosystem was coined by:

  1. A. G. Tansley
  2. Haeckel
  3. Warming
  4. P. Odum

Ans.     (1) A.G. Tansley

116. Which of the following is required as inducer(s) for the expression of Lac operon?

  1. galactose
  2. lactose
  3. lactose and galactose
  4. glucose

Ans.     (2) lactose                                                [NCERT class 12, page 117]

117. Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?

  Microbe Product Application
(1) Monascus purpureus Statins lowering of blood cholesterol
(2) Streptococcus Streptokinase removal of clot from blood vessel
(3) Clostridium butylicum Lipase removal of oil stains
(4) Trichoderma polysporum Cyclosporin A immunosuppressive drug

Ans.   (3)   Clostridium butylicum – Lipase – removal of oil stains             [NCERT class 12, page 183]

118. When does the growth rate of a population following the logistic model equal zero ? The logistic model is given as dN/dt = rN(l-N/K):

  1. when N nears the carrying capacity of the habitat.
  2. when N/ K equals zero.
  3. when death rate is greater than birth rate.
  4. when N/K is exactly one.

Ans.   (4)   when N/K is exactly one.                                             [NCERT class 12, page 231]

119. Which one of the following statements is not true ?

  1. Exine of pollen grains is made up of sporopollenin
  2. Pollen grains of many species cause severe allergies
  3. Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be used in the crop breeding programmes
  4. Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.

Ans.   (4)   Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of anther.             [NCERT class 12, page 21-23]

120. In bryophytes and pteridophytes, transport of male gametes requires:

  1. Insects
  2. Birds
  3. Water
  4. Wind

Ans.   (3)   Water                                             [NCERT class 11, page 35-36]

121. Which of the following is not a stem modification ?

  1. Thorns of citrus
  2. Tendrils of cucumber
  3. Flattened structures of Opuntia
  4. Pitcher of Nepenthes

Ans.   (4)   Pitcher of Nepenthes                                   [NCERT class 11, page 68,69,71]

122. Which one of the following cell organelles is enclosed by a single membrane ?

  1. Chloroplasts
  2. Lysosomes
  3. Nuclei
  4. Mitochondria

Ans.   (2)   Lysosomes                     [NCERT class 11, page 134,136,140]

123. Analogous structures are a result of:

  1. Convergent evolution
  2. Shared ancestry
  3. Stabilizing selection
  4. Divergent evolution

Ans.   (1)   Convergent evolution                  [NCERT class 12, page 131]

124. Which one of the following statements is wrong ?

  1. Cellulose is a polysaccharide.
  2. Uracil is a pyrimidine.
  3. Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.
  4. Sucrose is a disaccharide.

Ans.   (3)   Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid.              [NCERT class 11, page 197]

125. Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:

  1. Connective
  2. Placenta
  3. Thalamus or petal
  4. Anther

Ans.   (3)   Thalamus or petal

 

  1. Which of the following is not required for any of the techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at present?
    1. Zinc finger analysis
    2. Restriction enzymes
    3. DNA-DNA hybridization
    4. Polymerase chain reaction

Ans.     (1)     Zinc finger analysis                       [NCERT class 12, page 121-122]

 

  1. Which one of the following characteristics is not shared by birds and mammals?
    1. Breathing using lungs
    2. Viviparity
    3. Warm blooded nature
    4. Ossified endoskeleton

Ans.    (2)   Viviparity                                                       [NCERT class 11, page 59-60]

 

  1. Select the incorrect statement:
    1. LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
    2. LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.
    3. LH triggers secretion of androgens from the Leydig cells.
    4. FSH stimulates theSertoli cells which help in spermiogenesis.

Ans.    (2)   LH and FSH decrease gradually during the follicular phase.

[NCERT class 11, page 332]

 

  1. The amino acid Tryptophan is the precursor for the synthesis of:
    1. Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine
    2. Estrogen and Progesterone
    3. Cortisol and Cortisone
    4. Melatonin and Serotonin

Ans.    (4)   Melatonin and Serotonin

 

  1. Joint Forest Management Concept was introduced in India during:
    1. 1970s
    2. 1980s
    3. 1990s
    4. 1960s

Ans.    (2)   1980s                                                                                 [NCERT class 12, page 258]

 

  1. One of the major components of cell wall of most fungi is:
    1. Peptidoglycan
    2. Cellulose
    3. Hemicellulose
    4. Chitin

Ans.    (4)   chitin                                                                     [NCERT class 11, page 22]

 

  1. A complex of ribosomes attached to a single strand of RNA is known as:
    1. Polymer
    2. Polypeptide
    3. Okazaki fragment
    4. Polysome

Ans.    (4)   polysome                                       [NCERT class 11, page 129]

 

  1. Which of the following features is not present in the Phylum – Arthropoda?
    1. Metameric segmentation
    2. Parapodia
    3. Jointed appendages
    4. Chitinous exoskeleton

Ans.      (2)     Parapodia                                                                      [NCERT class 11, page 52-53]

 

  1. Asthma may be attributed to:
    1. allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs
    2. inflammation of the trachea
    3. accumulation of fluid in the lungs
    4. bacterial infection of the lungs

Ans.      (1)     allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs                          [NCERT class 12, page 153]

 

  1. Pick out the correct statements:

(a) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(b) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(c) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(d) Sickle cell anaemia is an X – linked recessive gene disorder.

  1. (b) and (d) are correct.
  2. (a), (c) and (d) are correct.
  3. (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
  4. (a) and (d) are correct.

Ans.      (3)     (a), (b) and (c) are correct.                                          [NCERT class 12, page 89-90]

 

 

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